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(Eligibility) Himachal Pradesh National Law University National Law Entrance Test (HPNLET)



(Eligibility) Himachal Pradesh National Law University National Law Entrance Test (HPNLET)


UNDER GRADUATE PROGRAMMES [B.A./B.B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) Five Year Integrated Course]

Educational Qualification:

For Under-Graduate Programme [B.A./B.B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) Five Year Integrated Course]: Passed 10+2 or equivalent examination with a minimum of (i) 50% marks in case of candidates belonging to Unreserved/OBC/Specially Abled Person (SAP)/NRI/NRI Sponsored Categories/Kashmiri Migrants, (ii) 45% marks in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST Categories. Candidates appearing in qualifying examination in March/April, 2017 are also eligible to apply.

Applicants who have obtained 10+2 through Open School/Universities system directly without having any basic qualification are not eligible for the Law Course.

Age Limit: Candidates should be below 20 Years of age in case of Unreserved/NRI/NRI Sponsored categories, and below 22 Years in case of SC/ST/OBC/SAP categories as on 1st July, 2017

POST-GRADUATE PROGRAMMES (One Year LL.M. Course)

Educational Qualification:

LL.B. (Three Years/Five Years) or equivalent degree with a minimum of 55% marks in case of Unreserved/OBC/SAP categories and 50% in case of SC/ST Categories. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in April/May 2017 are also eligible to apply.

Ph. D. Programme

Educational Qualification:

LL.M. or equivalent Degree with a minimum of 55% marks. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in April/May 2017 are also eligible to apply

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Himachal Pradesh National Law University National Law Entrance Test (HPNLET-2017)



(Notification) Himachal Pradesh National Law University National Law Entrance Test (HPNLET-2017)



ONLINE applications are invited for admission to Under-Graduate, Post Graduate and Ph. D. Programmes of Himachal Pradesh National Law University, Shimla for the academic session 2017-18, as per the following schedule:

UNDER-GRADUATE PROGRAMMES [B.A./B.B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) Five Year Integrated Course]

Educational Qualification:

For Under-Graduate Programme [B.A./B.B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) Five Year Integrated Course]: Passed 10+2 or equivalent examination with a minimum of (i) 50% marks in case of candidates belonging to Unreserved/OBC/Specially Abled Person (SAP)/NRI/NRI Sponsored Categories/Kashmiri Migrants, (ii) 45% marks in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST Categories. Candidates appearing in qualifying examination in March/April, 2017 are also eligible to apply.

Applicants who have obtained 10+2 through Open School/Universities system directly without having any basic qualification are not eligible for the Law Course.

Age Limit: Candidates should be below 20 Years of age in case of Unreserved/NRI/NRI Sponsored categories, and below 22 Years in case of SC/ST/OBC/SAP categories as on 1st July, 2017

POST-GRADUATE PROGRAMMES (One Year LL.M. Course)

Educational Qualification:

LL.B. (Three Years/Five Years) or equivalent degree with a minimum of 55% marks in case of Unreserved/OBC/SAP categories and 50% in case of SC/ST Categories. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in April/May 2017 are also eligible to apply.

Ph. D. Programme

Educational Qualification:

LL.M. or equivalent Degree with a minimum of 55% marks. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in April/May 2017 are also eligible to apply

Duration of The Semester

Under Graduate 

  • Duration of the Semestersin UnderGraduate (UG) programs shall beof 18 weeks each with not less than 30 class hours per week including tutorials, examination etc. 
  • Provided there shall be at least 24 lectures per week; providedfurther that for Honors Law Courses there shall be notless than 36 Hoursper week including Seminars etc., and 30 minimumlecture hours per week. 

Post Graduate

  • The duration of the programme shall be One Year, with minimum of 30 contact hours in each week and eighteen weeks for each of the semester including class room teaching, library work , seminars and research; 
  • The entire programme shall be spread evenly for the duration of the programme, with not more than 12 credits in each semester. 
  • Each of the semester shall be of a working duration of 18 weeks respectively. 
  • Each candidate during his LL.M. is required to have 6 weeks teaching internship at any of the NLUs or the Universities approved by the committee for this purpose. 

Ph. D. 

  • Minimum two years and Maximum five years. See Annexure II 

P. G. Diploma

  • Maximum period is one year.

Syllabus:

For B.A./B.B.A. LL.B. (Hons.)

  • General Awareness: 50
  • Legal Awareness & Reasonning: 40
  • Quantitative Aptitude: 30
  • English Comprehensive: 30

Total no. of Marks – 150 marks

For LLM

120 MCQ from the areas below

  • Constitutional Law
  • Law of Contract
  • Law of Torts
  • Family Law
  • Criminal Law
  • Public International Law
  • Jurisprudence
  • Corporate Law and
  • 30 Marks essay on Contemporary Legal Problems, total 150 Marks

For Ph. D

Paper I: 50 MCQs of Legal Research Methodology of 100 Marks
Paper II 50 Marks essay on a Topic related to Law and Social Transformation.

Total – 150 Marks

GENERAL: 

(Download) NIOS: Previous Year Question Papers "Business Studies 'B' - April 2019"

NIOS: Previous Year Question Paper "Business Studies 'B' - April 2019"

Subject: Business Studies 'B'

Subject Code: 215

Year: 2019

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

NCERT Physics Question Paper (Class - 12)

NCERT Physics Question Paper (Class - 12)


:: Chapter 1 - Electric Charges And Fields ::


List of Physics Formula

EXERCISE

Question 1: What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10−7 C and 3 × 10−7 C placed 30 cm apart in air?

Question 2: The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 µC due to another small sphere of charge − 0.8 µC in air is 0.2 N. (a) What is the distance between the two spheres? (b) What is the force on the second sphere due to the first?

Question 3: Check that the ratio ke2/G memp is dimensionless. Look up a Table of physical constants and determine the value of this ratio. What does the ratio signify?

Question 4: (a) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body is quantised’.
(b) Why can one ignore quantisation of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i.e., large scale charges?

Question 5: When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar phenomenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.

Question 6: Four point charges qA = 2 µC, qB = −5 µC, qC = 2 µC, and qD = −5 µC are located at the corners of a square ABCD of side 10 cm. What is the force on a charge of 1 µC placed at the centre of the square

Question 7: (a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. That is, a field line cannot have sudden breaks. Why not? (b) Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point?

Question 8: Two point charges qA = 3 µC and qB = −3 µC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum. (i) What is the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges? (ii) If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 × 10−9 C is placed at this point, what is the force experienced by the test charge?

Question 9: A system has two charges qA = 2.5 × 10−7 C and qB = −2.5 × 10−7 C located at points A: (0, 0, − 15 cm) and B: (0, 0, + 15 cm), respectively. What are the total charge and electric dipole moment of the system?


:: Chapter 2 - Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance ::


EXERCISE

Question 2.1 Two charges 5 × 10–8 C and –3 × 10–8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point (s) on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.

Question 2.2 A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 μC at each of its vertices. Calculate the potential at the centre of the hexagon.

Question 2.3 Two charges 2 μC and –2 μC are placed at points A and B 6 cm apart.
(a) Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
(b) What is the direction of the electric field at every point on this surface?

Question 2.4 A spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has a charge of 1.6 × 10–7C distributed uniformly on its surface. What is the electric field
(a) inside the sphere
(b) just outside the sphere
(c) at a point 18 cm from the centre of the sphere?

Question 2.5 A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF (1pF = 10–12 F). What will be the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half, and the space between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?

Question 2.6 Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series.
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(b) What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 120 V supply?

Question 2.7 Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are connected in parallel.
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination? (b) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 100 V supply.

Question 2.8 In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10–3 m2 and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor. If this capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each plate of the capacitor?

Question 2.9 Explain what would happen if in the capacitor given in Exercise2.8, a 3 mm thick mica sheet (of dielectric constant = 6) were inserted between the plates,
(a) while the voltage supply remained connected.
(b) after the supply was disconnected.

Question 2.10 A 12pF capacitor is connected to a 50V battery. How much electrostatic energy is stored in the capacitor?

Question 2.11 A 600pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the process?

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTIONS

Question 2.12 A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work done in taking a small charge of –2 × 10–9 C from a point P (0, 0, 3 cm) to a point Q (0, 4 cm, 0), via a point R (0, 6 cm, 9 cm).

Question 2.13 A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. Determine the potential and electric field due to this charge array at the centre of the cube.

Question 2.14 Two tiny spheres carrying charges 1.5 μC and 2.5 μC are located 30 cm apart. Find the potential and electric field: (a) at the mid-point of the line joining the two charges, and (b) at a point 10 cm from this midpoint in a plane normal to the line and passing through the mid-point.

Question 2.15 A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has a charge Q.
(a) A charge q is placed at the centre of the shell. What is the surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell?
(b) Is the electric field inside a cavity (with no charge) zero, even if the shell is not spherical, but has any irregular shape? Explain.

Question 2.16 (a) Show that the normal component of electrostatic field has a discontinuity from one side of a charged surface to another given by 2 1 0 ( ) ˆ σ ε E − E n = where ˆn is a unit vector normal to the surface at a point and σ is the surface charge density at that point. (The direction of ˆn is from side 1 to side 2.) Hence show that just outside a conductor, the electric field is σ ˆn /ε0.
(b) Show that the tangential component of electrostatic field is continuous from one side of a charged surface to another. [Hint: For (a), use Gauss’s law. For, (b) use the fact that work done by electrostatic field on a closed loop is zero.]

Question 2.17 A long charged cylinder of linear charged density λ is surrounded by a hollow co-axial conducting cylinder. What is the electric field in the space between the two cylinders?

Question 2.18 In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound at a distance of about 0.53 Å:
(a) Estimate the potential energy of the system in eV, taking the zero of the potential energy at infinite separation of the electron from proton.
(b) What is the minimum work required to free the electron, given that its kinetic energy in the orbit is half the magnitude of potential energy obtained in (a)?
(c) What are the answers to (a) and (b) above if the zero of potential energy is taken at 1.06 Å separation?

Question 2.19 If one of the two electrons of a H2 molecule is removed, we get a hydrogen molecular ion H+ 2.In the ground state of an H+ 2, the two protons are separated by roughly 1.5 Å, and the electron is roughly 1 Å from each proton. Determine the potential energy of the system. Specify your choice of the zero of potential energy.

Question 2.20 Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire. What is the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres? Use the result obtained to explain why charge density on the sharp and pointed ends of a conductor is higher than on its flatter portions.

Question 2.21 Two charges –q and +q are located at points (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a), respectively.
(a) What is the electrostatic potential at the points (0, 0, z) and (x, y, 0) ?
(b) Obtain the dependence of potential on the distance r of a point from the origin when r/a >> 1.
(c) How much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5,0,0) to (–7,0,0) along the x-axis? Does the answer change if the path of the test charge between the same points is not along the x-axis?

Question 2.22 Figure2.34 shows a charge array known as an electric quadrupole. For a point on the axis of the quadrupole, obtain the dependence of potential on r for r/a >> 1, and contrast your results with that due to an electric dipole, and an electric monopole (i.e., a single charge).

Question 2.23 An electrical technician requires a capacitance of 2 μF in a circuit across a potential difference of 1 kV. A large number of 1 μF capacitors are available to him each of which can withstand a potential difference of not more than 400 V. Suggest a possible arrangement that requires the minimum number of capacitors.

Question 2.24 What is the area of the plates of a 2 F parallel plate capacitor, given that the separation between the plates is 0.5 cm? [You will realise from your answer why ordinary capacitors are in the range of μF or less. However, electrolytic capacitors do have a much larger capacitance (0.1 F) because of very minute separation between the conductors.]

Question 2.25 Obtain the equivalent capacitance of the network in Fig. 2.35. For a 300 V supply, determine the charge and voltage across each capacitor.

Question 2.26 The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm2 each and are separated by 2.5 mm. The capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V supply.
(a) How much electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor?
(b) View this energy as stored in the electrostatic field between the plates, and obtain the energy per unit volume u. Hence arrive at a relation between u and the magnitude of electric field E between the plates.

Question 2.27 A 4 μF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply, and is connected to another uncharged 2 μF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy of the first capacitor is lost in the form of heat and electromagnetic radiation?

Question 2.28 Show that the force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a magnitude equal to (½) QE, where Q is the charge on the capacitor, and E is the magnitude of electric field between the plates. Explain the origin of the factor ½.

Question 2.29 A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical conductors, held in position by suitable insulating supports (Fig2.36). Show that the capacitance of a spherical capacitor is given by 0 1 2 1 2 4 – r r C r r πε = where r1 and r2 are the radii of outer and inner spheres, respectively.

Question 2.30 A spherical capacitor has an inner sphere of radius 12 cm and an outer sphere of radius 13 cm. The outer sphere is earthed and the inner sphere is given a charge of 2.5 μC. The space between the concentric spheres is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 32.
(a) Determine the capacitance of the capacitor.
(b) What is the potential of the inner sphere?
(c) Compare the capacitance of this capacitor with that of an isolated sphere of radius 12 cm. Explain why the latter is much smaller.s the magnitude of electrostatic force between them exactly given by Q1 Q2/4πε0r 2, where r is the distance between their centres?
(b) If Coulomb’s law involved 1/r3 dependence (instead of 1/r2), would Gauss’s law be still true ?
(c) A small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration. Will it travel along the field line passing through that point?
(d) What is the work done by the field of a nucleus in a complete circular orbit of the electron? What if the orbit is elliptical?
(e) We know that electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. Is electric potential also discontinuous there?
(f ) What meaning would you give to the capacitance of a single conductor?
(g) Guess a possible reason why water has a much greater dielectric constant (= 80) than say, mica (= 6).

Question 2.32 A cylindrical capacitor has two co-axial cylinders of length 15 cm and radii 1.5 cm and 1.4 cm. The outer cylinder is earthed and the inner cylinder is given a charge of 3.5 μC. Determine the capacitance of the system and the potential of the inner cylinder. Neglect end effects (i.e., bending of field lines at the ends).

Question 2.33 A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed with a voltage rating 1 kV, using a material of dielectric constant 3 and dielectric strength about 107 Vm–1. (Dielectric strength is the maximum electric field a material can tolerate without breakdown, i.e., without starting to conduct electricity through partial ionisation.) For safety, we should like the field never to exceed, say 10% of the dielectric strength. What minimum area of the plates is required to have a capacitance of 50 pF?

Question 2.34 Describe schematically the equipotential surfaces corresponding to
(a) a constant electric field in the z-direction,
(b) a field that uniformly increases in magnitude but remains in a constant (say, z) direction,
(c) a single positive charge at the origin, and
(d) a uniform grid consisting of long equally spaced parallel charged wires in a plane .

Question 2.35 In a Van de Graaff type generator a spherical metal shell is to be a 15 × 106 V electrode. The dielectric strength of the gas surrounding the electrode is 5 × 107 Vm–1. What is the minimum radius of the spherical shell required? (You will learn from this exercise why one cannot build an electrostatic generator using a very small shell which requires a small charge to acquire a high potential.)

Question 2.36 A small sphere of radius r1 and charge q1 is enclosed by a spherical shell of radius r2 and charge q2. Show that if q1 is positive, charge will necessarily flow from the sphere to the shell (when the two are connected by a wire) no matter what the charge q2 on the shell is.

Question 2.37 Answer the following:
(a) The top of the atmosphere is at about 400 kV with respect to the surface of the earth, corresponding to an electric field that decreases with altitude. Near the surface of the earth, the field is about 100 Vm–1. Why then do we not get an electric shock as we step out of our house into the open? (Assume the house to be a steel cage so there is no field inside!)
(b) A man fixes outside his house one evening a two metre high insulating slab carrying on its top a large aluminium sheet of area 1m 2.Will he get an electric shock if he touches the metal sheet next morning?
(c) The discharging current in the atmosphere due to the small conductivity of air is known to be 1800 A on an average over the globe. Why then does the atmosphere not discharge itself completely in due course and become electrically neutral? In other words, what keeps the atmosphere charged?
(d) What are the forms of energy into which the electrical energy of the atmosphere is dissipated during a lightning? (Hint: The earth has an electric field of about 100 Vm–1 at its surface in the downward direction, corresponding to a surface charge density = –10–9 C m– 2. Due to the slight conductivity of the atmosphere up to about 50 km (beyond which it is good conductor), about + 1800 C is pumped every second into the earth as a whole. The earth, however, does not get discharged since thunderstorms and lightning occurring continually all over the globe pump an equal amount of negative charge on the earth.)


:: Chapter 3 - Current Electricity ::


Question 3.1 The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.4 Ω, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?

Question 3.2 A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor? What is the terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit is closed?

Question 3.3 (a) Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω are combined in series. What is the total resistance of the combination? (b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 12 V and negligible internal resistance, obtain the potential drop across each resistor.

Question 3.4 (a) Three resistors 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω are combined in parallel. What is the total resistance of the combination?
(b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 20 V and negligible internal resistance, determine the current through each resistor, and the total current drawn from the battery.

Question 3.5 At room temperature (27.0 °C) the resistance of a heating element is 100 Ω. What is the temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117 Ω, given that the temperature coefficient of the material of the resistor is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

Question 3.6 A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross-section 6.0 × 10–7 m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of the material at the temperature of the experiment?

Question 3.7 A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C. Determine the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.

Question 3.8 A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial current of 3.2 A which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A. What is the steady temperature of the heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 °C? Temperature coefficient of resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

Question 3.9 Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in Fig. 3.30:

Question 3.10 (a) In a metre bridge [Fig. 3.7], the balance point is found to be at 39.5 cm from the end A, when the resistor Y is of 12.5 Ω. Determine the resistance of X. Why are the connections between resistors in a Wheatstone or meter bridge made of thick copper strips?
(b) Determine the balance point of the bridge above if X and Y are interchanged.
(c) What happens if the galvanometer and cell are interchanged at the balance point of the bridge? Would the galvanometer show any current?

Question 3.11 A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V dc supply using a series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery during charging? What is the purpose of having a series resistor in the charging circuit?

Question 3.12 In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to 6 3.0 cm, what is the emf of the second cell?

Question 3. 13 The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor estimated in Example 3.1 is 8.5 × 1028 m–3. How long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long to its other end? The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 × 10–6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTIONS

Question 3. 14 The earth’s surface has a negative surface charge density of 10–9 C m–2. The potential difference of 400 kV between the top of the atmosphere and the surface results (due to the low conductivity of the lower atmosphere) in a current of only 1800 A over the entire globe. If there were no mechanism of sustaining atmospheric electric field, how much time (roughly) would be required to neutralise the earth’s surface? (This never happens in practice because there is a mechanism to replenish electric charges, namely the continual thunderstorms and lightning in different parts of the globe). (Radius of earth = 6.37 × 106 m.)

Question 3.15 (a) Six lead-acid type of secondary cells each of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.015 Ω are joined in series to provide a supply to a resistance of 8.5 Ω. What are the current drawn from the supply and its terminal voltage?
(b) A secondary cell after long use has an emf of 1.9 V and a large internal resistance of 380 Ω. What maximum current can be drawn from the cell? Could the cell drive the starting motor of a car?

Question 3.16 Two wires of equal length, one of aluminium and the other of copper have the same resistance. Which of the two wires is lighter? Hence explain why aluminium wires are preferred for overhead power cables. (ρAl = 2.63 × 10–8 Ω m, ρCu = 1.72 × 10–8 Ω m, Relative density of Al = 2.7, of Cu = 8.9.)

Question 3.17 What conclusion can you draw from the following observations on a resistor made of alloy manganin?

Question 3.18 Answer the following questions:
(a) A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. Which of these quantities is constant along the conductor: current, current density, electric field, drift speed?
(b) Is Ohm’s law universally applicable for all conducting elements? If not, give examples of elements which do not obey Ohm’s law.
(c) A low voltage supply from which one needs high currents must have very low internal resistance. Why?
(d) A high tension (HT) supply of, say, 6 kV must have a very large internal resistance. Why?

Question 3.19 Choose the correct alternative:
(a) Alloys of metals usually have (greater/less) resistivity than that of their constituent metals.
(b) Alloys usually have much (lower/higher) temperature coefficients of resistance than pure metals.
(c) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is nearly independent of/ increases rapidly with increase of temperature.
(d) The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g., amber) is greater than that of a metal by a factor of the order of (1022/103).

Question 3.20 (a) Given n resistors each of resistance R, how will you combine them to get the
(i) maximum
(ii) minimum effective resistance? What is the ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance? (b) Given the resistances of 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3 Ω, how will be combine them to get an equivalent resistance of (i) (11/3) Ω (ii) (11/5) Ω,
(iii) 6 Ω, (iv) (6/11) Ω? (c) Determine the equivalent resistance of networks shown in Fig. 3.31.

Question 3.22 Figure 3.33 shows a potentiometer with a cell of 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.40 Ω maintaining a potential drop across the resistor wire AB. A standard cell which maintains a constant emf of 1.02 V (for very moderate currents upto a few mA) gives a balance point at 67.3 cm length of the wire. To ensure very low currents drawn from the standard cell, a very high resistance of 600 kΩ is put in series with it, which is shorted close to the balance point. The standard cell is then replaced by a cell of unknown emf ε and the balance point found similarly, turns out to be at 82.3 cm length of the wire.
(c) Is the balance point affected by this high resistance?
(d) Is the balance point affected by the internal resistance of the driver cell?
(e) Would the method work in the above situation if the driver cell of the potentiometer had an emf of 1.0V instead of 2.0V? (f ) Would the circuit work well for determining an extremely small emf, say of the order of a few mV (such as the typical emf of a thermo-couple)? If not, how will you modify the circuit?

Question 3.23 Figure 3.34 shows a potentiometer circuit for comparison of two resistances. The balance point with a standard resistor R = 10.0 Ω is found to be 58.3 cm, while that with the unknown resistance X is 68.5 cm. Determine the value of X. What might you do if you failed to find a balance point with the given cell of emf ε ?

Question 3.24 Figure 3.35 shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the determination of internal resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in open circuit is 76.3 cm. When a resistor of 9.5 Ω is used in the external circuit of the cell, the balance point shifts to 64.8 cm length of the potentiometer wire. Determine the internal resistance of the cell.
 


:: Chapter 4 - Moving Charges and Magnetism ::


Question 4.1 A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil?

Question 4.2 A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of the field B at a point 20 cm from the wire?

Question 4.3 A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in north to south direction. Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of the wire.

Question 4.4 A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line?

Question 4.5 What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length ?

Question 4.6 A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. What is the magnetic force on the wire?

Question 4.7 Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.

Question 4.8 A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the magnitude of B inside the solenoid near its centre.

Question 4.9 A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30º with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque experienced by the coil?

Question 4.10 Two moving coil meters, M1 and M2 have the following particulars: R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2, B1 = 0.25 T R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T (The spring constants are identical for the two meters). Determine the ratio of (a) current sensitivity and (b) voltage sensitivity of M2 and M1.

Question 4.11 In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G (1 G = 10–4 T) is maintained. An electron is shot into the field
with a speed of 4.8 × 106 m s–1 normal to the field. Explain why the path of the electron is a circle. Determine the radius of the circular orbit. (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, me = 9.1×10–31 kg)

Question 4.12 In Exercise 4.11 obtain the frequency of revolution of the electron in its circular orbit. Does the answer depend on the speed of the electron? Explain.

Question 4.13 (a) A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an angle of 60º with the normal of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter torque that must be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
(b) Would your answer change, if the circular coil in
(a) were replaced by a planar coil of some irregular shape that encloses the same area? (All other particulars are also unaltered.)

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTION

Question 4.14 Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm and 10 cm, respectively, lie in the same vertical plane containing the north to south direction. Coil X has 20 turns and carries a current of 16 A; coil Y has 25 turns and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of the current in X is anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an observer looking at the coils facing west. Give the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field due to the coils at their centre .

Question 4.15 A magnetic field of 100 G (1 G = 10–4 T) is required which is uniform in a region of linear dimension about 10 cm and area of cross-section about 10–3 m2. The maximum current-carrying capacity of a given coil of wire is 15 A and the number of turns per unit length that can be wound round a core is at most 1000 turns m–1. Suggest some appropriate design particulars of a solenoid for the required purpose. Assume the core is not ferromagnetic.

Question 4.16 For a circular coil of radius R and N turns carrying current I, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on its axis at a distance x from its centre is given by, ( ) 2 0 2 2 3/2 2 IR N B x R μ = +
(a) Show that this reduces to the familiar result for field at the centre of the coil.
(b) Consider two parallel co-axial circular coils of equal radius R, and number of turns N, carrying equal currents in the same direction, and separated by a distance R. Show that the field on the axis around the mid-point between the coils is uniform over a distance that is small as compared to R, and is given by, 0.72 0 NI B R μ = , approximately. [Such an arrangement to produce a nearly uniform magnetic field over a small region is known as Helmholtz coils.]

Question 4.17 A toroid has a core (non-ferromagnetic) of inner radius 25 cm and outer radius 26 cm, around which 3500 turns of a wire are wound. If the current in the wire is 11 A, what is the magnetic field (a) outside the toroid, (b) inside the core of the toroid, and (c) in the empty space surrounded by the toroid.

Question 4.18 Answer the following questions:
(a) A magnetic field that varies in magnitude from point to point but has a constant direction (east to west) is set up in a chamber. A charged particle enters the chamber and travels undeflectedalong a straight path with constant speed. What can you say about the initial velocity of the particle?
(b) A charged particle enters an environment of a strong and non-uniform magnetic field varying from point to point both in magnitude and direction, and comes out of it following a complicated trajectory. Would its final speed equal the initial speed if it suffered no collisions with the environment?
(c) An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in north to south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic field should be set up to prevent the electron from deflecting from its straight line path.

Question 4.19 An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, enters a region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of the electron if the field
(a) is transverse to its initial velocity,
(b) makes an angle of 30º with the initial velocity.

Question 4.20 A magnetic field set up using Helmholtz coils (described in Exercise 4.16) is uniform in a small region and has a magnitude of 0.75 T. In the same region, a uniform electrostatic field is maintained in a direction normal to the common axis of the coils. A narrow beam of (single species) charged particles all accelerated through 15 kV enters this region in a direction perpendicular to both the axis of the coils and the electrostatic field. If the beam remains undeflected when the electrostatic field is 9.0 × 10–5 V m–1, make a simple guess as to what the beam contains. Why is the answer not unique?

Question 4.21 A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and mass 60 g is suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires.
(a) What magnetic field should be set up normal to the conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero?
(b) What will be the total tension in the wires if the direction of current is reversed keeping the magnetic field same as before? (Ignore the mass of the wires.) g = 9.8 m s–2.

Question 4.22 The wires which connect the battery of an automobile to its starting motor carry a current of 300 A (for a short time). What is the force per unit length between the wires if they are 70 cm long and 1.5 cm apart? Is the force attractive or repulsive?

Question 4.23 A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of radius10.0 cm, its direction parallel to the axis along east to west. A wire carrying current of 7.0 A in the north to south direction passes through this region. What is the magnitude and direction of the force on the wire if,
(a) the wire intersects the axis,
(b) the wire is turned from N-S to northeast-northwest direction,
(c) the wire in the N-S direction is lowered from the axis by a distance of 6.0 cm?

Question 4.24 A uniform magnetic field of 3000 G is established along the positive z-direction. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carries a current of 12 A. What is the torque on the loop in the different cases shown in Fig. 4.28? What is the force on each case? Which case corresponds to stable equilibrium?

Question 4.25 A circular coil of 20 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in the coil is 5.0 A, what is the
(a) total torque on the coil,
(b) total force on the coil,
(c) average force on each electron in the coil due to the magnetic field? (The coil is made of copper wire of cross-sectional area 10–5 m2, and the free electron density in copper is given to be about 1029 m–3.)

Question 4.26 A solenoid 60 cm long and of radius 4.0 cm has 3 layers of windings of 300 turns each. A 2.0 cm long wire of mass 2.5 g lies inside the solenoid (near its centre) normal to its axis; both the wire and the axis of the solenoid are in the horizontal plane. The wire is connected through two leads parallel to the axis of the solenoid to an external battery which supplies a current of 6.0 A in the wire. What value of current (with appropriate sense of circulation) in the windings of the solenoid can support the weight of the wire? g = 9.8 m s–2.

Question 4.27 A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 Ω and the metre shows full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the metre into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V?

Question 4.28 A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 Ω and the metre shows full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. How will you convert the metre into an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A? 


:: Chapter 5 - Magnetism and Matter ::


Question 5.1 Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism:
(a) A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent quantities conventionally used to specify the earth’s magnetic field.
(b) The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18º. Would you expect a greater or smaller dip angle in Britain?
(c) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines seem to go into the ground or come out of the ground?
(d) In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located right on the geomagnetic north or south pole?
(e) The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of magnetic moment 8 × 1022 J T–1 located at its centre. Check the order of magnitude of this number in some way.
(f ) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local poles on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all?

Question 5.2 Answer the following questions:
(a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space. Does it also change with time? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably?
(b) The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a source of the earth’s magnetism. Why?
(c) The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought to be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e., the source of energy) to sustain these currents?
(d) The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its history of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in such distant past?
(e) The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances (greater than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this distortion?
(f ) Interstellar space has an extremely weak magnetic field of the order of 10–12 T. Can such a weak field be of any significant consequence?

Question 5.2 is meant mainly to arouse your curiosity. Answers to some questions above are tentative or unknown. Brief answers wherever possible are given at the end. For details, you should consult a good text on geomagnetism.]

Question 5.3 A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10–2 J. What is the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?

Question 5.4 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 JT–1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation wou

Question 5.5 A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of 3.0 A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment?

Question 5.6 If the solenoid in xercise 5.5 is free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.215 T is applied, what is the magnitude of torque on the solenoid when its axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of applied field?

Question 5.7 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J T–1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22 T. (a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as to align its magnetic moment:
(i) normal to the field direction , (ii) opposite to the field direction?
(b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?

Question 5.8 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 × 10–4 m2, carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.
(a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
(b) What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5 × 10–2 T is set up at an angle of 30º with the axis of the solenoid?

Question 5.9 A circular coil of 16 turns and radius 10 cm carrying a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane normal to an external field of magnitude 5.0 × 10–2 T. The coil is free to turn about an axis in its plane perpendicular to the field direction. When the coil is turned slightly and released, it oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a frequency of 2.0 s–1. What is the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of rotation?

Question 5.10 A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip pointing down at 22º with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.

Question 5.11 At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12º west of the geographic north. The north tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic meridian points 60º above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s field is measured to be 0.16 G. Specify the direction and magnitude of the earth’s field at the location.

Question 5.12 A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 J T–1. Give the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the magnet on (a) the axis,(b) the equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.

Question 5.13 A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic north-south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the same distance as the null–point (i.e., 14 cm) from the centre of the magnet? (At null points, field due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)

Question 5.14 If the bar magnet in exercise 5.13 is turned around by 180º, where will the new null points be located?

Question 5.15 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 × 10–2 J T–1 is placed with its axis perpendicular to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the centre of the magnet, the resultant field is inclined at 45º with earth’s field on (a) its normal bisector and (b) its axis. Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to the distances involved.

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTIONS

Question 5.16 Answer the following questions:
(a) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the
(c) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
(d) Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not, is it more for lower or higher fields?
(e) Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface of a conductor at every point.) Why?
(f ) Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

Question 5.17 Answer the following questions:
(a) Explain qualitatively on the basis of domain picture the irreversibility in the magnetisation curve of a ferromagnet.
(b) The hysteresis loop of a soft iron piece has a much smaller area than that of a carbon steel piece. If the material is to go through repeated cycles of magnetisation, which piece will dissipate greater heat energy?
(c) ‘A system displaying a hysteresis loop such as a ferromagnet, is a device for storing memory?’ Explain the meaning of this statement.
(d) What kind of ferromagnetic material is used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player, or for building ‘memory stores’ in a modern computer?
(e) A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest a method .

Question 5.18 A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A in the direction 10º south of west to 10º north of east. The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10º west of the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic field at the location is 0.33 G, and the angle of dip is zero. Locate the line of neutral points (ignore the thickness of the cable). (At neutral points, magnetic field due to a current-carrying cable is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)

Question 5.19 A telephone cable at a place has four long straight horizontal wires carrying a current of 1.0 A in the same direction east to west. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.39 G, and the angle of dip is 35º. The magnetic declination is nearly zero. What are the resultant magnetic fields at points 4.0 cm below the cable?

Question 5.20 A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is placed at the centre of circular coil of 30 turns and radius 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an angle of 45º with the magnetic meridian. When the current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points west to east.
(a) Determine the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the location.
(b) The current in the coil is reversed, and the coil is rotated about its vertical axis by an angle of 90º in the anticlockwise sense looking from above. Predict the direction of the needle. Take the magnetic declination at the places to be zero.

Question 5.21 A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions is 60º, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10–2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15º with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field?

Question 5.22 A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam initially in the horizontal direction is subjected to a horizontal magnetic field of 0.04 G normal to the initial direction. Estimate the up or down deflection of the beam over a distance of 30 cm (me = 9.11 × 10–19 C). [Note: Data in this exercise are so chosen that the answer will give you an idea of the effect of earth’s magnetic field on the motion of the electron beam from the electron gun to the screen in a TV set.]

Question 5.23 A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 × 1024 atomic dipoles each of dipole moment 1.5 × 10–23 J T–1. The sample is placed under a homogeneous magnetic field of 0.64 T, and cooled to a temperature of 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is equal to 15%. What is the total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K? (Assume Curie’s law

Question 5.24 A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of wire wound on a ferromagnetic core of relative permeability 800. What is the magnetic field B in the core for a magnetising current of 1.2 A?

Question 5.25 The magnetic moment vectors μs and μl associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum S and orbital angular momentum l, respectively, of an electron are predicted by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by: μs = –(e/m) S, μl = –(e/2m)l Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the derivation of the classical result


:: Chapter 6 - Electromagnetic Induction ::


Question 6.1 Predict the direction of induced current in the situations described by the following Figs. 6.18(a) to (f ).

Question 6.2 Use Lenz’s law to determine the direction of induced current in the situations described by Fig. 6.19:
(
a) A wire of irregular shape turning into a circular shape;
(b) A circular loop being deformed into a narrow straight wire.

Question 6.3 A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?

Question 6.4 A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a small cut is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. What is the emf developed across the cut if the velocity of the loop is 1 cm s–1 in a direction normal to the (a) longer side, (b) shorter side of the loop? For how long does the induced voltage last in each case?

Question 6.5 A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular frequency of 400 rad s–1 about an axis normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the axis exists everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.

Question 6.6 A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50 rad s–1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 × 10–2 T. Obtain the maximum and average emf induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of resistance 10 Ω, calculate the maximum value of current in the coil. Calculate the average power loss due to Joule heating. Where does this power come from?

Question 6.7 A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 m s–1, at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field, 0.30 × 10–4 Wb m–2.
(a) What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire?
(b) What is the direction of the emf?
(c) Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?

Question 6.8 Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, give an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit.

Question 6.9 A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?

Question 6.10 A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference developed between the ends of the wing

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTIONS

Question 6.11 Suppose the loop in Exercise Question 6.4 is stationary but the current feeding the electromagnet that produces the magnetic field is gradually reduced so that the field decreases from its initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 T s–1. If the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of 1.6 Ω, how much power is dissipated by the loop as heat? What is the source of this power?

Question 6.12 A square loop of side 12 cm with its sides parallel to X and Y axes is moved with a velocity of 8 cm s–1 in the positive x-direction in an environment containing a magnetic field in the positive z-direction. The field is neither uniform in space nor constant in time. It has a gradient of 10 –3 T cm–1 along the negative x-direction (that is it increases by 10 – 3 T cm–1 as one moves in the negative x-direction), and it is decreasing in time at the rate of 10 –3 T s–1. Determine the direction and magnitude of the induced current in the loop if its resistance is 4.50 mΩ.

Question 6.13 It is desired to measure the magnitude of field between the poles of a powerful loud speaker magnet. A small flat search coil of area 2 cm2 with 25 closely wound turns, is positioned normal to the field direction, and then quickly snatched out of the field region. Equivalently, one can give it a quick 90° turn to bring its plane parallel to the field direction). The total charge flown in the coil (measured by a ballistic galvanometer connected to coil) is 7.5 mC. The combined resistance of the coil and the galvanometer is 0.50 Ω. Estimate the field strength of magnet.

Question 6.14 Figure 6.20 shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails AB and positioned between the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three mutual perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.
(a) Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed of 12 cm s–1 in the direction shown. Give the polarity and magnitude of the induced emf. experience magnetic force due to the motion of the rod. Explain.
(d) What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed?
(e) How much power is required (by an external agent) to keep the rod moving at the same speed (=12 cm s–1) when K is closed? How much power is required when K is open?
(f ) How much power is dissipated as heat in the closed circuit? What is the source of this power?
(g) What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the magnetic field is parallel to the rails instead of being perpendicular?

Question 6.15 An air-cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of cross-section 25 cm2 and number of turns 500, carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time of 10–3 s. How much is the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch in the circuit? Ignore the variation in magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.

Question 6.16 (a) Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square loop of side a as shown in Fig. 6.21.
(b) Now assume that the straight wire carries a current of 50 A and the loop is moved to the right with a constant velocity, v = 10 m/s. Calculate the induced emf in the loop at the instant when x = 0.2 m. Take a = 0.1 m and assume that the loop has a large resistance.

Question 6.17 A line charge λ per unit length is lodged uniformly onto the rim of a wheel of mass M and radius R. The wheel has light non-conducting spokes and is free to rotate without friction about its axis (Fig. 6.22). A uniform magnetic field extends over a circular region within the rim. It is given by, B = – B0 k (r ≤ a; a < R) = 0 (otherwise) What is the angular velocity of the wheel after the field is suddenly switched off?


:: Chapter 7 - Alternating Current ::


Question 7.1 A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit?
(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?

Question 7.2(a) The peak voltage of an ac supply is 300 V. What is the rms voltage?
(b) The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10 A. What is the peak current?

Question 7.3 A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.

Question 7.4 A 60 μF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.

Question 7.5 In Exercises 7.3 and 7.4, what is the net power absorbed by each circuit over a complete cycle. Explain your answer.

Question 7.6 Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0H, C = 32 μF and R = 10 Ω. What is the Q-value of this circuit?

Question 7.7 A charged 30 μF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH inductor. What is the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit?

Question 7.8 Suppose the initial charge on the capacitor in Exercise

Question 7.7 is 6 mC. What is the total energy stored in the circuit initially? What is the total energy at later time?

Question 7.9 A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35 μF is connected to a variable-frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle?

Question 7.10 A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of MW broadcast band: (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 μH, what must be the range of its variable capacitor? [Hint: For tuning, the natural frequency i.e., the frequency of free oscillations of the LC circuit should be equal to the frequency of the radiowave.]

Question 7.11 Figure 7.21 shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80μF, R = 40 Ω.
(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show that the potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency.

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES QUESTIONS

Question 7.12 An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a 50 μF capacitor with an initial charge of 10 mC. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Let the instant the circuit is closed be t = 0 .
(a) What is the total energy stored initially? Is it conserved during LC oscillations?
(b) What is the natural frequency of the circuit?
(c) At what time is the energy stored
(i) completely electrical (i.e., stored in the capacitor)?
(ii) completely magnetic (i.e., stored in the inductor)?
(d) At what times is the total energy shared equally between the inductor and the capacitor?
(e) If a resistor is inserted in the circuit, how much energy is eventually dissipated as heat?

Question 7.13 A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the coil?
(b) What is the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum?

Question 7.14 Obtain the answers (a) to (b) in Exercise 7.13 if the circuit is connected to a high frequency supply (240 V, 10 kHz). Hence, explain the statement that at very high frequency, an inductor in a circuit nearly amounts to an open circuit. How does an inductor behave in a dc circuit after the steady state?

Question 7.15 A 100 μF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the circuit?
(b) What is the time lag between the current maximum and the voltage maximum?

Question 7.16 Obtain the answers to (a) and (b) in Exercise 7.15 if the circuit is connected to a 110 V, 12 kHz supply? Hence, explain the statement that a capacitor is a conductor at very high frequencies. Compare this behaviour with that of a capacitor in a dc circuit after the steady state.

Question 7.17 Keeping the source frequency equal to the resonating frequency of the series LCR circuit, if the three elements, L, C and R are arranged in parallel, show that the total current in the parallel LCR circuit is minimum at this frequency. Obtain the current rms value in each branch of the circuit for the elements and source specified in Exercise 7.11 for this frequency.

Question 7.18 A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 μF capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values
(b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(d) What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
(e) What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit? [‘Average’ implies ‘averaged over one cycle’.]

Question 7.19 Suppose the circuit in Exercise 7.18 has a resistance of 15 Ω. Obtain the average power transferred to each element of the circuit, and the total power absorbed. Physics 268

Question 7.20 A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency supply.
(a) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this maximum value.
(b) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is maximum. Obtain the value of this maximum power.
(c) For which frequencies of the source is the power transferred to the circuit half the power at resonant frequency? What is the current amplitude at these frequencies?
(d) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit?

Question 7.21 Obtain the resonant frequency and Q-factor of a series LCR circuit with L = 3.0 H, C = 27 μF, and R = 7.4 Ω. It is desired to improve the sharpness of the resonance of the circuit by reducing its ‘full width at half maximum’ by a factor of 2. Suggest a suitable way.

Question 7.22 Answer the following questions:
(a) In any ac circuit, is the applied instantaneous voltage equal to the algebraic sum of the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit? Is the same true for rms voltage?
(b) A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil.
(c) An applied voltage signal consists of a superposition of a dc voltage and an ac voltage of high frequency. The circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor in series. Show that the dc signal will appear across C and the  ac signal across L.
(d) A choke coil in series with a lamp is connected to a dc line. The lamp is seen to shine brightly. Insertion of an iron core in the choke causes no change in the lamp’s brightness. Predict the corresponding observations if the connection is to an ac line.
(e) Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains? Why can we not use an ordinary resistor instead of the choke coil?

Question 7.23 A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a stepdown transformer with its primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V?

Question 7.24 At a hydroelectric power plant, the water pressure head is at a height of 300 m and the water flow available is 100 m3s–1. If the turbine generator efficiency is 60%, estimate the electric power available from the plant (g = 9.8 ms–2 ).

Question 7.25 A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
(b) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due to leakage?
(c) Characterise the step up transformer at the plant.

Question 7.26 Do the same exercise as above with the replacement of the earlier transformer by a 40,000-220 V step-down transformer (Neglect, as before, leakage losses though this may not be a good assumption any longer because of the very high voltage transmission involved). Hence, explain why high voltage transmission is preferred?


:: Chapter 8 - Electromagnetic Waves ::


 Question 8.1 Figure 8.6 shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm, and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in the figure). The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15A.

(a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of charge of potential difference between the plates.
(b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
(c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain

Question 8.2 A parallel plate capacitor (Fig. 8.7) made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a (angular) frequency of 300 rad s–1.
(a) What is the rms value of the conduction current?
(b) Is the conduction current equal to the displacement current?
(c) Determine the amplitude of B at a point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.

Question 8.3 What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10–10 m, red light of wavelength 6800 Å and radiowaves of wavelength 500m?

Question 8.4 A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?

Question 8.5 A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the corresponding wavelength band?

Question 8.6 A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator?

Question 8.7 The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0 = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?

Question 8.8 Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its frequency is ν = 50.0 MHz.
(a) Determine, B0,ω, k, and λ
(b) Find expressions for E and B.

Question 8.9 The terminology of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum is given in the text. Use the formula E = hν (for energy of a quantum of radiation: photon) and obtain the photon energy in units of eV for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. In what way are the different scales of photon energies that you obtain related to the sources of electromagnetic radiation?

Question 8.10 In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1.
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field? (c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of the B field. [c = 3 × 108 m s–1.]

ADDITIONAL EXERCISES

Question 8.11 Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = {(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 106 rad/s)t]}ˆi .
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) What is the wavelength λ ?
(c) What is the frequency ν ?
(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?
(e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.

Question 8.12 About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What is the average intensity of visible radiation
(a) at a distance of 1m from the bulb?
(b) at a distance of 10 m? Assume that the radiation is emitted isotropically and neglect reflection.

CBSE Special TX: 
GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Notification) Law School Admission Test (LSAT) - 2017



(Notification) Law School Admission Test (LSAT) - 2017



About the LSAT:

The LSAT is a half-day, standardized test administered four times each year at designated testing centers throughout the world.

Many law schools require that the LSAT be taken by December for admission the following fall. However, taking the test earlier—in June or September/October—is often advised.

Preparing For The LSAT:

The LSAT India is a test of analytical reasoning, logical reasoning, and reading comprehension, including comparative reading. What’s the best way to learn how to approach these types of questions before you encounter them on the day of the test?

There’s no better way than THE OFFICIAL LSAT—INDIA HANDBOOK, published by the Law School Admission Council. Use this inexpensive guide to become familiar with every type of LSAT question so that you can make the most of the rest of your test preparation and do your best on the test.

GENERAL: 

Guru Nanak Dev University Common Entrance Test



Guru Nanak Dev University Common Entrance Test



About Exam:

Guru Nanak Dev University conducts CET LAW/LLB/LLM Entrance Exam in order to admit aspirants, who wish to purse their career in law stream.

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Guru Nanak Dev University Common Entrance Test - 2016



(Notification) Guru Nanak Dev University Common Entrance Test - 2016



Guru Nanak Dev University is going to conduct common entrance test for law aspirants. Every year huge number of aspirants is applying for this academic course. Please read out the editorial carefully, details related to the admission test are mentioned here in brief. For more thorough information please go through its official website as well. However, all the details are mentioned below is based on last year data.

Courses offered

  • LL.B.(TYC)
  • B.A.LL.B.(Hons.)(FYIC)
  • LL.M.
  • Ph.D.

Application fee:

  • Applicant those who belong to General category are required to do payment of Rs 1000 as an application fee.
  • And the applicant those who belong to SC/ST category are required to do payment of Rs 500 as an application fee.

  • Payment of application fee will be done by applicant through any nearby branch of State Bank Of Patiala. Or fee can be submit using RTGS if no any branch of State Bank Of Patiala is nearby your location.

Eligibility:

Five year BA.LLB (Hons) program:

  • Candidate who belongs to General category must pass their 12th board exam with minimum of 50% marks from any standard university or board authorized by govt. of India. And 45% marks for the aspirants who belong to SC/ST category.
  • Minimum age of the aspirants should be less than 20 years for General category and those who belongs to SC/ST category should be of 22 years.

Three years LLB Law program:

  • Candidate who belongs to General category must pass their graduation with minimum of 50% marks from any standard university approved by govt. of India. And 45% marks for the aspirants who belong to SC/ST category.

  • Minimum age of the aspirants should be less than 30 years for General category.

GENERAL: 

Kerala Law Entrance Exam (KLEE)



Kerala Law Entrance Exam



About KLEE:

Kerala Law Entrance Examination is abbreviated as KLEE. KLEE is the under graduate entrance examination which is conducted by The Commissioner for Entrance Examinations (CEE, Thiruvananthapuram and Government of Kerala. Candidates who are willing to get their graduation degree in law courses are supposed to give KLEE entrance examination.

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Kerala Law Entrance Exam - 2016



(Notification) Kerala Law Entrance Exam - 2016



KLEE is for under graduate course. Candidates need to fill the application form and can apply for the entrance examination. This is university entrance examination where anyone can apply for the entrance examination and can get admission in LLB course.

Academic Qualifications:

Applicant should have passed the Kerala Higher Secondary Examination or any other examination recognised as equivalent thereto by Universities in Kerala (or) should have passed 10+2 Course recognised by the Educational Authority of Central or State Government (or) should possess such academic qualifications which are considered as equivalent to such 10+2 Course by the Bar Council of India, with a minimum of 45% marks.

Candidates seeking admission under SEBC category should have passed the qualifying examination with a minimum of 42% marks and SC/ST category should have passed the qualifying examination with a minimum of 40% marks.

Candidates who are appearing/have appeared for the qualifying examination this year are also eligible to apply, subject to the condition that they should produce the pass certificate and mark list of thequalifying examination at the time of admission.

Age Limit:

The applicant should have completed 17 years of age as on 31.12.2016.There is no upper age limit for admission to the Integrated Five Year LL-B Course

Application Fee:

For General and SEBC candidates, the application fee is Rs.600/- (Rupees Six Hundred Only)
For SC/ST Candidates the application fee is Rs.300/- (Rupees Three Hundred Only).

Exam Pattern :

KLEE will be conducted in 2nd week of July 2016. The syllabus and exam pattern are mentioned below:

  • There are 200 multiple choice questions

  • Questions will be related to English language, General Knowledge and Legal Studies.

  • On every correct answer candidate will get 3 marks and on every wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted.

  • Exam duration will be of 3 hours.

GENERAL: 

Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test (ILICAT)



Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test (ILICAT)



About ILICAT:

Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test (ILICAT) is conducted by the Indian Law Institute for admission into LLM programme. Last date of filling application form is June , 2016. Exam will be conducted on June, 2016.

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test - 2016



(Notification) Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test - 2016



Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test (ILICAT) is conducted by the Indian Law Institute for admission into LLM programme. Last date of filling application form is June , 2016. Exam will be conducted on June, 2016.

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Aligarh Muslim University Law Entrance Exam - 2016



(Notification) Aligarh Muslim University Law Entrance Exam - 2016



Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) shall be conducting AMU BA LLB 2016 on May 23 for admissions to undergraduate law programmes including BA LLB. You can know a brief about AMU BA LLB 2016– Important Dates, Eligibility Criteria, Application Form, Exam Pattern, Result and Counselling.

Academic Qualification :

You need to check the below mentioned minimum academic qualification required for AMU BA LLB Admission Test along with the minimum marks

  • You need to have qualified Senior Secondary School Certificate or 12th Board Examinations of 10+2 Education System or equivalent examination
  • You should have scored at least 50% in aggregate of the total marks
  • If you have qualified Bridge Course (Graduate of Deen Madaris) from AMU with 50% marks in aggregate

Age Limit:

You should have attained a maximum age of 22 years as on July 1 of the year of admission

Application Fees :

You needed to remit an application fee for AMU BA LLB Application Form 2016. If remitting the application in offline mode, you needed to draw a Demand Draft of Rs. 500 in favour of Finance Officer, A.M.U., Aligarh payable at Aligarh, otherwise could also remit the application fee in online mode using Net Banking/Debit Card/Credit Card

Paper Pattern:

Exam Mode – AMU BA LLB 2016 shall be conducted in offline mode.

Exam Duration – The BA LLB Admission Test will be conducted for a maximum of 2 hours beginning at 4:00 pm.

Exam Venues – Aligarh Muslim University shall be conducting AMU BA LLB 2016 in various exam centres of three cities of India – Aligarh, Murshidabad and Malappuram.

Number of Questions – The BA LLB 2016 admission test of AMU shall comprise of 75 objective-type questions and 10 short-answer type questions.

Total Marks – The total marks allotted to AMU BA LLB 2016 exam is 100 where the objective-type questions carry 75 marks and short-answer type questions carry 25 marks.

Marking Scheme – For each correct answer in objective-type questions, 1 mark shall be awarded and the maximum marks for every answer in short answer type questions shall be 2.5

Subjects – The 85 questions (75 objective types and 10 short-answer types) shall be distributed among three sections– General English, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, with emphasis on legal issues and Reasoning & Aptitude.

GENERAL: 

(Admit Card) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



(Admit Card) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



All the candidates are hereby informed that the admission cards of RULET- 2016 are dispatched by the office of the Convener, RULET-2016. If any candiate has not received his admission card upto May 27, 2016 are directed to contact in the office of the Convener RULET-2016 on May 28, 2016 from 8.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. the same is to be provided on May 29, 2016 from 7.30 a.m. The following documents are required for issuing of duplicate Admission Card :-

  • One Photo I.D. of the candidate
  • One Photograph same as affixed on the Admission Form
  • Receipt of Admission Form.
GENERAL: 

(Exam Pattern) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



(Exam Pattern) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



The Admission Test paper shall consist of multiple choice questions of 200 marks.

The questions shall comprise of

  • Language ability,
  • Legal reasoning,
  • General knowledge,
  • General science
  • Social studies.
GENERAL: 

(Eligibility) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



(Eligibility) Rajasthan University Law Entrance Test



10+2 (XII) with atleast 50% marks (For SC/ST 45%).

* Students who are appearing in XII examination ( for session 2015-16) are also eligible to appear in the Entrance Exam.

Documents Attached

The Photocopy of mark sheet of XII examination must be enclosed with application form who has already passed the XII examination.

Document of reservation must be submitted along with hard copy of application form. If the document of reservation is not submitted, he/she will be considered as a general category candidate.

GENERAL: 

(Notification) Banaras Hindu University Law entrance (BLAT) exam



Banaras Hindu University Law entrance exam



About BLAT:

Banaras Hindu University is an internationally reputed temple of learning, situated in the holy city of Varanasi. This Creative and innovative university was founded by the great nationalist leader, Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya, in 1916 with cooperation of great personalities like Dr Annie Besant, who viewed it as the University of India. Banaras Hindu University was created under the Parliamentary legislation - B.H.U. Act 1915. It played a stellar role in the independence movement and has developed into the greatest center of learning in India. It has produced many great freedom fighters and builders of modern India and has immensely contributed to the progress of the nation through a large number of renowned scholars, artists, scientists and technologists who have graced its portals. The area of the main campus of this premiere Central University is 1300 acres, having well maintained roads, extensive greenery, a temple, an air strip and buildings which are an architectural delight. The Air Field of the campus was started for military training for flying during the second world war. Another campus of the university at Barkachha , in Mirzapur district, covering an area of 2700 acres is coming up. The university comprises 3 Institutes, 14 Faculties 140 Departments, 4 Inter displinary Centers a constituent college for women's and 3 Constituents Schools, spanning a vast range of subjects pertaining to all branches of humanities,social science,technology, medicine ,science, fine arts and performing arts. It has 6 centres of Advanced Studies, 10 Departments under Special Assistance Programme and a large number of specialized Research Centers. Four Degree Colleges of the city are affiliated to the University. Bharat Kala Bhavan, the reputed museum of the university, is a treasure trove of rare collections. The 927 bed hospital of the University is equipped with all the modern a menities. The university provides a wide range of facilities for sport and hobbies, has large playgrounds, a big auditorium, a flying club and many auxiliary services and units like Printing Press, Publication Cell,Fruit Preservation Center, Subsidized Canteens, Employment and Information Bureau, Security etc. The University family consists of about 15000 students belonging to all streams of life, castes and religions and races, about 1700 teachers, and nearly 8000 non-teaching staff A large number of students from foreign countries like the U.S.A, the countries of Europe, Asia, Middle East, Africa etc., come to study here. The university has taken a leadership role in promoting new ideas, the spirit of integration of the world, and cultivation of intellect and culture. Banaras Hindu University is small Virtually the universe in microcosm.

Entrance Exam:

BHU LLB Entrance Test 2016 will be possibly organized in the month of May, 2016 for admission to 3-year LLB programme. Candidates who meet with requisite eligibility criteria can apply for BHU LLB entrance test 2016 in an online mode. Details like process to apply, application fee, exam pattern, date, admit card, result etc can be found here in this article. We have tried to furnish all possible details relating to this exam so that students would not have to face any issue during registration or exam.

Eligibility Criteria:

All candidates who are thinking to apply for BHU LLB 2016 are must to ensure whether they are eligible or not by going through the BHU LLB 2016 Eligibility Criteria mentioned below:

  • The minimum educational qualification candidates should hold if they would like to apply for BHU LLB entrance exam 2016 is graduation.
  • Candidates must have obtained at least 50% marks in aggregate in graduation.
  • Age of interested candidates should not cross 30 years as on July 1, 2016.
GENERAL: 

(Paper) CLAT UG Question Paper 2016 : Logical Reasoning

(Paper) CLAT UG Question Paper 2016 : Logical Reasoning

Section : V

Direction for Questions 161 - 163:

Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

GENERAL: 
Exam / Class: 

(Paper) CLAT UG Question Paper 2016 : Elementary Mathematics ( Numerical Ability )



(Paper) CLAT UG Question Paper 2016 : Elementary Mathematics ( Numerical Ability )

Section : III



Direction for Questions 91-110: Choose the most appropriate option:

Q.91 The number of 'three digit numbers' which are multiples of 9 are:

1. 98

2. 101

3. 100

GENERAL: 
Exam / Class: 

(Result) All India Bar Examination (AIBE) - IX



(Result) All India Bar Examination (AIBE) - IX



Exam Name: All India Bar Examination (AIBE)

Session: IX

Year: 2016

GENERAL: 

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