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(Info) New Pattern For 2008 Question Papers
Pattern : New Pattern For 2008 Question Papers
Very short answer questions: These are to be answered in one word or one sentence.
Question: Give an example of photochemical
reactions.
Answer: Photosynthesis / Photography
Short answer questions (3040
words): These are to be answered in 30 – 40 words.
(Download) NIOS Practical Papers Of Biology Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Practical Papers Of Biology Senior Secondary
Scheme of Biology Practical Examination
Duration: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 20
Sample Question Paper
1. To perform an experiment (Any one out of the following A and B) 4
A. To dissect and display the general viscera of Rat and to flaglabel Six
specified organs.
OR
B. To demonstrate or carry out exercises (Any two out of the following)
(i) Osmosis in potato/carrot.
(ii) Plasmolysis in Rhoeo Tradescantia leaf.
(iii) Rate of Photosynthesis in Hydrilla (or any other aquatic plant)
(iv) Action of Salivary amylase on starch.
(v) Chemical rest of abnormal constituents in urine (sugar and albumin)
(vi) Identification of given flower, write its flower formula and draw its
floral diagram.
2. To identify and comment upon four speciments/slide AD. 3
3. To prepare a temporary stained mount of the material provided and to identify and make a labeled sketch. 3
4. To submit a project report (Prepared during the academic session) 2
5. Practical Record book 3
6. Vivavoce 5
List Of Experiments In Biology
1. (A) Dissection of rat and flaglabelling its various organs
(a) flag labeling of six specified parts Stomach, appendix, liver, pancreas,
spleen, diaphragm, heart, dorsal aorta, kidney, adrenal, testis, ovary.
(b) Pinning, stretching, display. 6* ½=3
(B) Demonstration and carrying out of any two exercises 1 4
i) Osmosis in potato/carrot
ii) Plasmolyses in Rhoeo/Tradescantia leaf
iii) Rate of photosynthesis in Hydrilla or any other aquatic plant
iv) Action of salivary amylase on starch
v) Chemical tests of abnormal constituents in urine (sugar and albumin)
vi) Identification of given flower, write its flower formula and draw its floral
diagram.
(For exercise iv)
 Setting up of the experiments and demonstration 1
 Recording the observations and conclusions. 1
(For exercise vi)
 Writing the flower formula 1
 Drawing the floral diagram = 1
2 marks for each exercise
(2+2) =4
2. To identify and comment upon the four speciments/slides AD
A. Any one prepared slide showing microscope structures of the following
i) Dicot root
ii) Dicot leaf
iii) Dicot stem
iv) Monocot root
v). Monocot leaf
vi).Monocot stem
v) cartilage
vi) Bone
vii) Blood
viii) Liver
ix) Kidney
x) Testis
xi) Ovary
xii) Skin
B. Any one of the following speciments :
i) Chlamydomonas (vegetative)
ii) Spirogyra( vegetative or conjugation stage)
iii) Any one stage of Mucor/Rhizopus
iv) Moss gametophyte or sporophyte
v) Fern (sporophyte/prothelus/Sporangium)
vi) Pinus (male cone/female cone/long and dwarf shoot)
C. Identification and classification up to class and listing main features of any one of the following speciments:
(Download) NIOS Practical Papers Of Chemistry Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Practical Papers Of Chemistry Senior Secondary
Curriculum For Practical work In Chemistry
Objectives of the present course in practical work are as follows:
1. To develop and inculcate laboratory skills and techniques
2. To enable the student to understand the basic chemical concepts.
3. To develop basic competence of analysing and synthesising chemical compounds
and mixtures.
To meet these objectives three different types of laboratory experiments are provided in the present practical course.\
1. Experiment for developing laboratory skills/techniques
2. Concept based experiments
3. Traditional experiements (for analysing and synthesing chemicals)
List of Practicals
1. (i) General safety measures with special reference to safe handling of chemicals.
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Mass Communication (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Mass Communication (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
समय: 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक: 80
टिप्पणी:
1 खंड ‘क’ के सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
2 खंड ‘ख’ से अपनी पसंद के किसी एक माॅड्यूल से प्रश्नों का उत्तर दें।
3 प्रश्नों के समक्ष निर्धारित अंक मुद्रित हैं।
खंड ‘क’
(1) प्राचीन ज्ञान तथा कौशल किस प्रकार एक पीढ़ी से दूसरी पीढ़ी तक हस्तांतरित होता था? (1)
(2) जन माध्यम के रूप में रेडियो के विभिन्न उद्देश्यों में से किसी एक का उल्लेख करें। (1)
(3) कल्पना करें कि आप रेडियो स्टूडियो में एक साक्षात्कार रिकार्ड कर रहे हैं। इसके लिए आप कौन सा माइक्रोफोन उपयोग करेंगे? (1)
(4) लिखित संप्रेषण के क्या लाभ हैं? (2)
(5) समाचारपत्रा में दायित्व निर्वहन हेतु आवश्यक उपसंपादक के किन्ही दो गुणों का उल्लेख करें। (2)
(6) रेडियो प्रसारण हेतु उत्तरदायी किसी रेडियो केन्द्र के दो अंगों के नाम लिखें। (2)
(7) किस तरह कल्पना आधारित (फिक्शन) कार्यक्रम अकाल्पनिक (नाॅनफिक्शन) कार्यक्रमों से भिन्न होते हैं? प्रत्येक कार्यक्रम रूपों का एक उदाहरण दें।
(8) जिंगल तथा स्पाॅट में अंतर करें। (2)
(9) किसी एक कार्यक्रम/संदेश/कार्य जिसे न्यू मीडिया के माध्यम से संप्रेषित/प्रदर्शित किया जा सकता हो, का उल्लेख करें। आप दैनन्दिन जीवन से कोई उदाहरण भी ले सकते हैं। (2)
(10) हम अपने दैनन्दिन जीवन में अंतरवैयक्तिक संप्रेषण का किस प्रकार उपयोग करते हैं। (4)
(11) पिं्रट मीडिया तथा इलेक्ट्राॅनिक मीडिया के मध्य किन्हीं चार अंतरों का उल्लेख करें। (4)
(12) सामुदायिक रेडियो से आप क्या समझते हैं? (4)
(13) रेडियो की किन्ही चार सीमाओं का उल्लेख करें। (4)
(14) कल्पना करें कि आप किसी टेलीविजन कार्यक्रम के निर्देशक हैं। अपने मुख्य उत्तरदायित्वों में से चार का उल्लेख करें। (4)
(15) किसी उत्पाद को बाजार में उतारने या उन्नयन हेतु प्रयुक्त उत्पाद जनसंपर्क के चार तरीकों का उल्लेख करें। (4)
(16) वेबसाइट से आप क्या समझते हैं? विशेषीकृत (नीश) वेबसाइट क्या हैं? (4)
(17) उन चार तरीकों को सूचीबद्ध करें जिनसे न्यू मीडिया विद्यार्थियों हेतु उपयोगी होता है। (4)
(18) कारण सहित उन छः बिंदुओं की व्याख्या करें जिससे कोई आयोजन या घटना समाचारपरक बनता है। (6)
(19) टेलीविजन की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन करें। (6)
(20) ऐसी परिस्थिति पर विचार करें जिसमें जनता का ध्यान आकर्षित करने के लिए आपको आउटडोर मीडिया का उपयोग करना जरूरी है। उन आउटडोर मीडिया रूपों का वर्णन करें जिनका इसके लिए आप उपयोग करेंगे। (6)
खंड ‘ख’
वैकल्पिक माॅड्यूल टप्प् ‘क’ (परम्परागत माध्यम)
(Download) Nios Question Paper Of Mass Communication Senior Secondary
(Download) Nios Question Paper Of Mass Communication Senior Secondary
Time 3 hrs Maximum
marks: 80
Note:
i) All questions in Section A are compulsory.
ii) From Section B attempt questions of only one module of your choice.
iii) Marks for each question is indicated against it.
SECTION A
1. How did ancient knowledge and wisdom pass on from one generation to another? 1
2. Name anyone of the objectives of radio as a mass medium? 1
3. Imagine you are recording an interview in a radio studio. Name the type of microphone you would use for this. 1
4. What are the advantages of written communication? 2
5. Describe any two job requirements of a subeditor in a newspaper. 2
6. Name the two wings in a radio station which are responsible for running the radio station's broadcasts. 2
7. How are fiction programmes different from non fiction programmes? Give one example of each type of programme. 2
8. Differentiate between a jingle and a spot. 2
9. Write about anyone programme/ message/ task that can be best communicated/ performed with the use of new media. You may like to take any example from daily life as well. 2
10. How do we use interpersonal communication in our daily life? 4
11. Mention any four differences between Print Media and Electronic Media. 4
12. What do you understand by community radio? 4
13. List any four limitations of radio. 4
14. Imagine you are the director of a television programme. List any four of your main responsibilities? 4
15. Name four methods used to launch or promote products in product public relations. 4
16. What is meant by a website? What are niche websites? 4
17. List any four ways in which new media can be useful for a student. 4
18. Explain with reason six points which makes an event or incident newsworthy. 6
19. Explain the main characteristics of television. 6
20. Consider a situation in which you have to use outdoor media to attract public attention. Describe the forms of outdoor media which you would choose. 6
SECTION  B
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Painting Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Painting Senior Secondary
Sample Question Paper  Painting
Time  1½ hours
Marks – 30
Note : Attempt all questions
 The question having 1mark should be answered in about 15 words.
 The question having 2marks should be answered in about 30 words.
 The question having 3 & 4 marks should be answered in about 50 words.
1) What is Pahari Qualam? Name the theme of the Pahari Miniature painting.
(1)
2) Name the region of Deccan school. Name a few of its important centres.
(1)
3) Why the term Company Painting is used for a special kind of painting during the early British rule.
(1)
4) What do you know about ‘Indus Valley Civilization’ and the finding of Art
and Crafts objects? (2)
1) Why Gupta period is known as ‘Golden Age’ of Art and Architecture?
(2)
6) Why ‘Padmapani Bodhisatva’ is one of the treasure paintings of the World Art?
(2)
7) Mention the site of Ellora Temple and describe one of the relief sculptures of Kailash Temple.
(2)
1) What is lost wax process? How is the technique is related to folk Bronze casting.
(2)
2) What are the materials used to build the Golegumbud and mention its date and site?
(2)
3) Describe the historical background of Mughal Miniature Painting.
(2)
4) Choose a painting of the famous artist Nihalchand and appreciate his style.
NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class  11)
NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class  11)
(Mathematics) : Chapter 1 Sets
EXERCISE 1.1
Question 1. Which of the following are sets ? Justify your asnwer.
(i) The collection of all the months of a year beginning with the letter J.
(ii) The collection of ten most talented writers of India.
(iii) A team of eleven bestcricket batsmen of the world.
(iv) The collection of all boys in your class.
(v) The collection of all natural numbers less than 100.
(vi) A collection of novels written by the writer Munshi Prem Chand.
(vii) The collection of all even integers.
(viii) The collection of questions in this Chapter. (ix) A collection of most
dangerous animals of the world.
Question 2. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Insert the appropriate symbol ∈ or in
the blank spaces:
(i) 5. . .A
(ii) 8 . . . A
(iii) 0. . .A
(iv) 4. . . A
(v) 2. . .A
(vi) 10. . .A
Question 3. Write the following sets in roster form:
(i) A = {x : x is an integer and –3 < x < 7}
(ii) B = {x : x is a natural number less than 6}
(iii) C = {x : x is a twodigit natural number such that the sum of its digits
is 8}
(iv) D = {x : x is a prime number which is divisor of 60}
( v) E = The set of all letters in the word
(vi) F = The set of all letters in the word
Question 4. Write the following sets in the setbuilder form :
(i) (3, 6, 9, 12}
(ii) {2,4,8,16,32}
(iii) {5, 25, 125, 625}
(iv) {2, 4, 6, . . .} (v) {1,4,9, . . .,100}
Question 5. List all the elements of the following sets :
(i) A = {x : x is an odd natural number}
(ii) B = {x : x is an integer, 1 2 – < x 9 2 }
(iii) C = {x : x is an integer, x2 ≤ 4}
(iv) D = {x : x is a letter in the word “LOYAL”}
(v) E = {x : x is a month of a year not having 31 days}
(vi) F = {x : x is a consonant in the English alphabet which precedes k }.
Question 6. Match each of the set on the left in the roster form with the
same set on the right described in setbuilder form:
(i) {1, 2, 3, 6} (a) {x : x is a prime number and a divisor of 6}
(ii) {2, 3} (b) {x : x is an odd natural number less than 10}
(iii) {M,A,T,H,E,I,C,S} (c) {x : x is natural number and divisor of 6}
(iv) {1, 3, 5, 7, 9} (d) {x : x is a letter of the word MATHEMATICS}.
EXERCISE 1.2
Question 1. 1Which of the following are examples of the null set]
(i) Set of odd natural numbers divisible by 2
(ii) Set of even prime numbers
(iii) { x : x is a natural numbers, x < 5 and x > 7 }
(iv) { y : y is a point common to any two parallel lines}
Question 2. Which of the following sets are finite or infinite
(i) The set of months of a year
(ii) {1, 2, 3, . . .}
(iii) {1, 2, 3, . . .99, 100}
(iv) The set of positive integers greater than 100
(v) The set of prime numbers less than 99
Question 3. State whether each of the following set is finite or infinite:
(i) The set of lines which are parallel to the xaxis
(ii) The set of letters in the English alphabet
(iii) The set of numbers which are multiple of 5
(iv) The set of animals living on the earth
(v) The set of circles passing through the origin (0,0)
Question 4. In the following, state whether A = B or not:
(i) A = { a, b, c, d } B = { d, c, b, a }
(ii) A = { 4, 8, 12, 16 } B = { 8, 4, 16, 18}
(iii) A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} B = { x : x is positive even integer and x ≤ 10}
(iv) A = { x : x is a multiple of 10}, B = { 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, . . . }
Question 4. Are the following pair of sets equal ? Give reasons.
(i) A = {2, 3}, B = {x : x is solution of x2 + 5x + 6 = 0}
(ii) A = { x : x is a letter in the word FOLLOW} B = { y : y is a letter in the
word WOLF}
Question 5. From the sets given below, select equal sets : A = { 2, 4, 8,
12}, B = { 1, 2, 3, 4}, C = { 4, 8, 12, 14}, D = { 3, 1, 4, 2} E = {–1, 1}, F =
{ 0, a}, G = {1, –1}, H = { 0, 1}
EXERCISE 1.3
Question 1. Make correct statements by filling in the symbols ⊂ or in the blank spaces :
(i) { 2, 3, 4 } . . . { 1, 2, 3, 4,5 }
(ii) { a, b, c } . . . { b, c, d }
(iii) {x : x is a student of Class XI of your school}. . .{x : x student of your
school}
(iv) {x : x is a circle in the plane} . . .{x : x is a circle in the same plane
with radius 1 unit}
(v) {x : x is a triangle in a plane} . . . {x : x is a rectangle in the plane}
(vi) {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} . . . {x : x is a triangle in
the same plane}
(vii) {x : x is an even natural number} . . . {x : x is an integer}
Question 2. Examine whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) { a, b } { b, c, a }
(ii) { a, e } ⊂ { x : x is a vowel in the English alphabe t}
(iii) { 1, 2, 3 } ⊂ { 1, 3, 5 }
(iv) { a }⊂ { a, b, c }
(v) { a }∈ { a, b, c }
(vi) { x : x is an even natural number less than 6} ⊂ { x : x is a natural
number which divides 36}
Question 3. Let A = { 1, 2, { 3, 4 }, 5 }. Which of the following statements
are incorrect and why?
(i) {3, 4} ⊂ A
(ii) {3, 4} ∈ A
(iii) {{3, 4}} ⊂ A (iv) 1 ∈ A
(v) 1 ⊂ A
(vi) {1, 2, 5} ⊂ A
(vii) {1, 2, 5} ∈ A
(viii) {1, 2, 3} ⊂ A
(ix) φ ∈ A
(x) φ ⊂ A
(xi) {φ} ⊂ A
Question 4. Write down all the subsets of the following sets
(i) {a}
(ii) {a, b}
(iii) {1, 2, 3}
(iv) φ
Question 5. How many elements has P(A), if A = φ? 6. Write the following as
intervals :
(i) {x : x ∈ R, – 4 < x ≤ 6}
(ii) {x : x ∈ R, – 12 < x < –10}
(iii) {x : x ∈ R, 0 ≤ x < 7}
(iv) {x : x ∈ R, 3 ≤ x ≤ 4}
Question 6. Write the following intervals in setbuilder form :
(i) (– 3, 0)
(ii) [6 , 12]
(iii) (6, 12]
(iv) [–23, 5)
Question 7. What universal set(s) would you propose for each of the following
:
(i) The set of right triangles.
(ii) The set of isosceles triangles.
Question 8. Given the sets A = {1, 3, 5}, B = {2, 4, 6} and C = {0, 2, 4, 6,
8}, which of the following may be considered as universal set (s) for all the
three sets A, B and C
(i) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(ii) φ
(iii) {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}
(iv) {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}
EXERCISE 1.4
Question 1. Find the union of each of the following pairs of sets :
(i) X = {1, 3, 5} Y = {1, 2, 3}
(ii) A = [ a, e, i, o, u} B = {a, b, c}
(iii) A = {x : x is a natural number and multiple of 3} B = {x : x is a natural
number less than 6}
(iv) A = {x : x is a natural number and 1 < x ≤ 6 } B = {x : x is a natural
number and 6 < x < 10 }
(v) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = φ
Question 2. Let A = { a, b }, B = {a, b, c}. Is A ⊂ B ? What is A ∪ B ?
Question 3. If A and B are two sets such that A ⊂ B, then what is A ∪ B ?
Question 4. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, C = {5, 6, 7, 8 }and D = { 7,
8, 9, 10 }; find
(i) A ∪ B
(ii) A ∪ C
(iii) B ∪ C
(iv) B ∪ D
(v) A ∪ B ∪ C
(vi) A ∪ B ∪ D
(vii) B ∪ C ∪ D
Question 5. Find the intersection of each pair of sets of question 1 above.
Question 6. If A = { 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 }, B = {7, 9, 11, 13}, C = {11, 13, 15}and D
= {15, 17}; find
(i) A ∩ B
(ii) B ∩ C
(iii) A ∩ C ∩ D
(iv) A ∩ C
(v) B ∩ D (vi) A ∩ (B ∪ C)
(vii) A ∩ D
(viii) A ∩ (B ∪ D)
(ix) ( A ∩ B ) ∩ ( B ∪ C ) (x) ( A ∪ D) ∩ ( B ∪ C)
Question 7. If A = {x : x is a natural number }, B = {x : x is an even
natural number} C = {x : x is an odd natural number}andD = {x : x is a prime
number }, find
(i) A ∩ B
(ii) A ∩ C
(iii) A ∩ D
(iv) B ∩ C
(v) B ∩ D
(vi) C ∩ D
Question 8. Which of the following pairs of sets are disjoint
(i) {1, 2, 3, 4} and {x : x is a natural number and 4 ≤ x ≤ 6 }
(ii) { a, e, i, o, u } and { c, d, e, f }
(iii) {x : x is an even integer } and {x : x is an odd integer} ]
Question 9. If A = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}, B = { 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 }, C = { 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16 }, D = {5, 10, 15, 20 }; find
(i) A – B
(ii) A – C
(iii) A – D
(iv) B – A
(v) C – A
(vi) D – A
(vii) B – C
(viii) B – D
(ix) C – B
(x) D – B
(xi) C – D
(xii) D – C
Question 10. If X= { a, b, c, d } and Y = { f, b, d, g}, find
(i) X – Y
(ii) Y – X
(iii) X ∩ Y
Question 11. If R is the set of real numbers and Q is the set of rational
numbers, then what is R – Q?
Question 12. State whether each of the following statement is true or false.
Justify your answer.
(i) { 2, 3, 4, 5 } and { 3, 6} are disjoint sets.
(ii) { a, e, i, o, u } and { a, b, c, d }are disjoint sets.
(iii) { 2, 6, 10, 14 } and { 3, 7, 11, 15} are disjoint sets.
(iv) { 2, 6, 10 } and { 3, 7, 11} are disjoint sets.
EXERCISE 1.5
Question 1. Let U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }, A = { 1, 2, 3, 4}, B = { 2, 4, 6, 8 } and C = { 3, 4, 5, 6 }. Find
(i) A′
(ii) B′
(iii) (A ∪ C)′
(iv) (A ∪ B)′
(v) (A′)′
(vi) (B – C)′
Question 2. If U = { a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}, find the complements of the
following sets :
(i) A = {a, b, c}
(ii) B = {d, e, f, g}
(iii) C = {a, c, e, g} (iv) D = { f, g, h, a}
Question 3. Taking the set of natural numbers as the universal set, write
down the complements of the following sets:
(i) {x : x is an even natural number}
(ii) { x : x is an odd natural number }
(iii) {x : x is a positive multiple of 3}
(iv) { x : x is a prime number }
(v) {x : x is a natural number divisible by 3 and 5}
(vi) { x : x is a perfect square }
(vii) { x : x is a perfect cube}
(viii) { x : x + 5 = 8 }
(ix) { x : 2x + 5 = 9} (x) { x : x ≥ 7 }
(xi) { x : x ∈ N and 2x + 1 > 10 }
Question 4. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }, A = {2, 4, 6, 8} and B = {
2, 3, 5, 7}. Verify that
(i) (A ∪ B)′ = A′ ∩ B′
(ii) (A ∩ B)′ = A′ ∪ B′
Question 5. Draw appropriate Venn diagram for each of the following :
(i) (A ∪ B)′
(ii) A′ ∩ B′
(iii) (A ∩ B)′,
(iv) A′ ∪ B′
Question 6. Let U be the set of all triangles in a plane. If A is the set of
all triangles with at least one angle different from 60°, what is A′?
Question 7. Fill in the blanks to make each of the following a true statement
:
(i) A ∪ A′ = . . .
(ii) φ′ ∩ A = . . .
(iii) A ∩ A′ = . . .
(iv) U′ ∩ A = . . .
EXERCISE 1.6
Question 1. If X and Y are two sets such that n ( X ) = 17, n ( Y ) =
23 and n ( X ∪ Y ) = 38, find n ( X ∩ Y ).
Question 2. If X and Y are two sets such that X ∪ Y has 18 elements, X
has 8 elements and Y has 15 elements ; how many elements does X ∩ Y have?
Question 3. In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can
speak English. How many people can speak both Hindi and English?
Question 4. If S and T are two sets such that S has 21 elements, T has 32
elements, and S ∩ T has 11 elements, how many elements does S ∪ T have?
Question 5. If X and Y are two sets such that X has 40 elements, X ∪ Y
has 60 elements and X ∩ Y has 10 elements, how many elements does Y have?
Question 6. In a group of 70 people, 37 like coffee, 52 like tea and each
person likes at least one of the two drinks. How many people like both coffee
and tea?
Question 7. In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10 like both
cricket and tennis. How many like tennis only and not cricket? How many like
tennis?
Question 8. In a committee, 50 people speak French, 20 speak Spanish and
10 speak both Spanish and French. How many speak at least one of these two
languages?
(Mathematics) : Chapter 2 Relations And Functions
EXERCISE 2.1
Qusetion 1. If 1 2 5 1 3 3 33 , find the values of x
and y.
Question 2. If the set A has 3 elements and the set B = {3, 4, 5}, then
find the number of elements in (A×B).
Question 3. If G = {7, 8} and H = {5, 4, 2}, find G × H and H × G.
Question 4. State whether each of the following statements are true or false.
If the statement is false, rewrite the given statement correctly.
(i) If P = {m, n} and Q = { n, m}, then P × Q = {(m, n),(n,
m)}.
(ii) If A and B are nonempty sets, then A × B is a nonempty set of ordered
pairs (x, y) such that x ∈ A and y ∈ B.
(iii) If A = {1, 2}, B = {3, 4}, then A × (B ∩ φ) = φ.
Question 5. If A = {–1, 1}, find A × A × A. 6. If A ×
B = {(a, x),(a , y), (b, x), (b, y)}. Find A and B.
Question 6. Let A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6,
7, 8}. Verify that (i) A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C). (ii) A × C is a subset
of B × D.
Question 7. Let A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4}. Write A ×
B. How many subsets will A × B have? List them.
Question 8. Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 3 and n(B) = 2. If
(x, 1), (y, 2), (z, 1) are in A × B, find A and B, where x, y and z are distinct
elements.
Question 10. The Cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which are
found (–1, 0) and\ (0,1). Find the set A and the remaining elements of A × A
EXERCISE 2.2
Qusetion 1. Let A = {1, 2, 3,...,14}. Define a
relation R from A to A by R = {(x, y) : 3x – y = 0, where x, y ∈ A}. Write down
its domain, codomain and range.
Question 2. Define a relation R on the set N of natural numbers by R =
{(x, y) : y = x + 5, x is a natural number less than 4; x, y ∈N}. Depict this
relationship using roster form. Write down the domain and the range.
Question 3. A = {1, 2, 3, 5} and B = {4, 6, 9}. Define a relation R from
A to B by R = {(x, y): the difference between x and y is odd; x ∈ A, y ∈ B}.
Write R in roster form.
Question 4. The Fi 2.7 shows a relationship between the sets P and Q.
Write this relation (i) in setbuilder form (ii) roster form. What is its domain
and range?
Question 5. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}. Let R be the relation on A defined by {(a, b): a , b ∈A, b is exactly divisible by a}.
(i) Write R in roster form
(ii) Find the domain of R
(iii) Find the range of R.
Question 6. Determine the domain and range of the relation R defined by R
= {(x, x + 5) : x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}.
Question 7. Write the relation R = {(x, x3) : x is a prime number less
than 10} in roster form.
Question 8. Let A = {x, y, z} and B = {1, 2}. Find the number of
relations from A to B.
Question 9. Let R be the relation on Z defined by R = {(a,b): a, b ∈ Z, a
– b is an integer}. Find the domain and range of R.
EXERCISE 2.3
Qusetion 1. Which of the following relations are functions? Give reasons. If it is a function, determine its domain and range.
(i) {(2,1), (5,1), (8,1), (11,1), (14,1), (17,1)}
(ii) {(2,1), (4,2), (6,3), (8,4), (10,5), (12,6), (14,7)}
(iii) {(1,3), (1,5), (2,5)}.
Question 2. Find the domain and range of the following real functions: (i)
f(x) = – x (ii) f(x) = 9 − x 2.
Question 3. A function f is defined by f(x) = 2x –5. Write down the
values of (i) f (0), (ii) f (7), (iii) f (–3).
Question 4. The function ‘t’ which maps temperature in degree Celsius into
temperature in degree Fahrenheit is defined by tC) = 9C 5 + 3 2.Find
(i) t(0)
(ii) t(28)
(iii) t(–10)
(iv) The value of C, when t(C) = 212.
Question 5. Find the range of each of the following functions.
(i) f (x) = 2 – 3x, x ∈ R, x > 0.
(ii) f (x) = x2 + 2, x is a real number.
(iii) f (x) = x, x is a real number
(Mathematics) : Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions
EXERCISE 3. 1
Question 1. Find the radian measures corresponding to the following degree measures:
(i) 25°
(ii) – 47°30
(iii)240°
(iv) 520°
Question 2. Find the degree measures corresponding to the following radian
measurs (Use π 22 7 = ).
(i) 11 16
(ii) – 4
(iii) 5π 3
(iv) 7π 6
Question 3. A wheel makes 360 revolutions in one minute. Through how many
radians does it turn in one second?
Question 4. Find the degree measure of the angle subtended at the centre of
a circle of radius 100 cm by an arc of length 22 cm (Use π 22 7 = ).
Question 5. In a circle of diameter 40 cm, the length of a chord is 20
cm. Find the length of minor arc of the chord.
Question 6. If in two circles, arcs of the same length subtend angles 60°
and 75° at the centre, find the ratio of their radii.
Question 7. Find the angle in radian through which a pendulum swings if
its length is 75 cm and th e tip describes an arc of length (i) 10 cm (ii) 15 cm
(iii) 21 cm
EXERCISE 3. 2
Find the values of other five trigonometric functions in Exercises 1 to 5.
Question 1. cos x = – 1 2 , x lies in third quadrant.
Question 2. sin x = 3 5, x lies in second quadrant.
Question 3. cot x = 4 3 , x lies in third quadrant.
Question 4. sec x = 13 5 , x lies in fourth quadrant.
Question 5. tan x = – 5 12 , x lies in second quadrant. Find the values
of the trigonometric functions in Exercises 6 to 10.
Question 6. sin 765°
Question 7. cosec (– 1410°) 8. tan 19π 3 9. sin (– 11π 3 ) 10. cot (– 15π
4 )
EXERCISE 3. 3
Prove that:
Question 1. sin2 π 6 + cos2 3 π – tan2 – 1 4 2 π =
Question 2. 2sin2 6 π + cosec2 7 cos2 3 6 3 2 π π =
Question 3. cot2 cosec 5 3tan2 6 6 6 6 π π π + + =
Question 4. 2sin2 3 2cos2 2sec2 10 4 4 3 π π π + + =
Question 5. Find the value of:
(i) sin 75°
(ii) tan 15°
Find the principal and general solutions of the following equations:
Question 6. tan x = 3
Question 7. sec x = 2
Question 8. cot x = − 3
Question 9. cosec x = – 2
Find the general solution for each of the following equations:
Question 10. cos 4 x = cos 2 x
Question 11. cos 3x + cos x – cos 2x = 0
Question 12. sin 2x + cosx = 0 8. sec2 2x = 1– tan 2x
(Mathematics) : Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction
EXERCISE 4.1
Prove the following by using the principle of mathematical induction for all n ∈ N:
Question 1. 1 + 3 + 32 + ... + 3n – 1 = (3 1) 2 n − .
Question 2. 13 + 23 + 33 + … +n3 = 2 ( 1) 2 n n + .
Question 3. 1 1 1 1 2 (1 2) (1 2 3) (1 2 3 ) ( 1) ... n ...n n + + + + =
+ + + + + + + .
Question 4. 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 +…+ n(n+1) (n+2) = ( 1)( 2)( 3) 4 n n + n + n +
.
Question 5. 1.3 + 2.32 + 3.33 +…+ n.3n = (2 1)3 1 3 4 n − n+ + .
Question 6. 1.2 + 2.3 + 3.4 +…+ n.(n+1) = ( 1)( 2) 3 n n + n +.
Question 7. 1.3 + 3.5 + 57 +…+ (2n–1) (2n+1) = (4 2 6 1) 3 n n + n − .
Question 8. 1.2 + 2.22 + 3.22 + ...+n.2n = (n–1) 2n + 1 + 2.
Question 9. 1 1 1 ... 1 1 1 2 4 8 2n 2n + + + + = − .
Question 10. 1 1 1 ... 1 2.5 5.8 8.11 (3 1)(3 2) (6 4) n n n n + + + + =
− + + .
Question 11. 1 1 1 ... 1 ( 3) 1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5 ( 1)( 2) 4( 1)( 2)
Question 12. a + ar + ar2 +…+ arn1 = ( 1) 1 a rn r − − .
Question 13. 2 2 1 3 1 5 1 7 ... 1 (2 1) ( 1) 1 4 9 n n
Question 14. 12 + 32 + 52 + …+ (2n–1)2 = (2 1)(2 1) 3 n n − n + .
Question 15. 1 1 1 ... 1 1.4 4.7 7.10 (3 2)(3 1) (3 1) n n n n + + + + =
− + + .
Question 16. 1 1 1 ... 1 3.5 5.7 7.9 (2 1)(2 3) 3(2 3) n n n n + + + + =
+ + + .
Question 17. 1 + 2 + 3 +…+ n < 1 8 (2n + 1)2.
Question 18. n (n + 1) (n + 5) is a multiple of 3.
Question 19. 102n – 1 + 1 is divisible by 11.
Question 20. x2n – y2n is divisible by x + y.
Question 21. 32n+2 – 8n – 9 is divisible by 8.
Question 22. 41n – 14n is a multiple of 27.
Question 23."> (2n + 7) < (n + 3)2.
(Mathematics) : Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
EXERCISE 5.1
Question 1. z = – 1 – i
Question 2. z = – + i Convert each of the complex numbers given in
Exercises 3 to 8 in the polar form:
Question 3. 1 – i 4. – 1 + i 5. – 1 – i 6. – 3 7. + i 8. i
EXERCISE 5.2
Solve each of the following equations:
Question 1. x2 + 3 = 0
Question 2. 2x2 + x + 1 = 0
Question 3. x2 + 3x + 9 = 0
Question 4. – x2 + x – 2 = 0
Question 5. x2 + 3x + 5 = 0
Question 6. x2 – x + 2 = 0
Question 7. 2x2 + x + 2 = 0
Question 8. 3x2 − 2x + 3 3 = 0
Question 9. 2 1 0 2 x + x + =
Question 10. 2 1 0 2 x + x
(Mathematics) : Chapter 6 Linear Inequalities
EXERCISE 6.1
Question 1. Solve 24x < 100, when
(i) x is a natural number.
(ii) x is an integer.
Question 2.Solve – 12x > 30, when
(i) x is a natural number.
(ii) x is an integer.
Question 3. Solve 5x – 3 < 7, when
(i) x is an integer.
(ii) x is a real number.
Question 4. Solve 3x + 8 >2, when
(i) x is an integer.
(ii) x is a real number. Solve the inequalities in Exercises 5 to 16 for real x.
Question 5. 4x + 3 < 6x + 7
Question 6. 3x – 7 > 5x – 1
Question 7. 3(x – 1) ≤ 2 (x – 3)
Question 8.3 (2 – x) ≥ 2 (1 – x)
Question 9. 11 2 3 x + x + x <
Question 10. 1 3 2 x x > +
Question 11. 3( 2) 5(2 ) 5 3 x − − x ≤
Question 12. 1 3 4 1 ( 6) 2 5 3 x + ⎞≥ x −
Question 13. 2 (2x + 3) – 10 < 6 (x – 2)
Question 14. 37 – (3x + 5) > 9x – 8 (x – 3)
Question 15. (5 2) (7 3) 4 3 5 x x− x − < −
Question 16. (2 1) (3 2) (2 ) 3 4 5 x − x − − x ≥ −
Solve the inequalities in Exercises 17 to 20 and show the graph of the solution in each case on number line
Question 17. 3x – 2 < 2x + 1
Question 18. 5x – 3 > 3x – 5
Question 19. 3 (1 – x) < 2 (x + 4)
Question 20. (5 2) (7 3) 2 3 5 x x − x − < −
Question 21. Ravi obtained 70 and 75 marks in first two unit test. Find
the number if minimum marks he should get in the third test to have an average
of at least 60 marks.
Question 22. To receive Grade ‘A’ in a course, one must obtain an average
of 90 marks or more in five examinations (each of 100 marks). If Sunita’s marks
in first four examinations are 87, 92, 94 and 95, find minimum marks that Sunita
must obtain in fifth examination to get grade ‘A’ in the course.
Question 23. Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers both of
which are smaller than 10 such that their sum is more than 11.
Question 24. Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers, both
of which are larger than 5 such that their sum is less than 23.
Question 25. The longest side of a triangle is 3 times the shortest side
and the third side is 2 cm shorter than the longest side. If the perimeter of
the triangle is at least 61 cm, find the minimum length of the shortest side.
Question 26. A man wants to cut three lengths from a single piece of
board of length 91cm. The second length is to be 3cm longer than the shortest
and the third length is to be twice as long as the shortest. What are the
possible lengths of the shortest board if the third piece is to be at least 5cm
longer than the second? [Hint: If x is the length of the shortest board, then x
, (x + 3) and 2x are the lengths of the second and third piece, respectively.
Thus, x + (x + 3) + 2x ≤ 91 and 2x ≥ (x + 3) + 5]
(Mathematics) : Chapter 7 Permutations And Combinations
EXERCISE 7.1
Question 1.How many 3digit numbers can be formed from the
digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 assuming that
(i) repetition of the digits is allowed?
(ii) repetition of the digits is not allowed?
Question 2.How many 3digit even numbers can be formed from the digits 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6 if the digits can be repeated?
Question 3.How many 4letter code can be formed using the first 10
letters of the English alphabet, if no letter can be repeated?
Question 4.How many 5digit telephone numbers can be constructed using
the digits 0 to 9 if each number starts with 67 and no digit appears more than
once?
Question 5.A coin is tossed 3 times and the outcomes are recorded. How
many possible outcomes are there?
Question 6.Given 5 flags of different colours, how many different signals
can be generated if each signal requires the use of 2 flags, one below the
other?
EXERCISE 7.2
Question 1.Evaluate
(i) 8 !
(ii) 4 ! – 3 !
Question 2.Is 3 ! + 4 ! = 7 ! ?
Question 3.Compute 8! 6!× 2!
Question 4.If 1 1 6! 7! 8! + = x , find x
Question 5.Evaluate ( ) ! ! n n − r , when
(i) n = 6, r = 2
(ii) n = 9, r = 5.
EXERCISE 7.3
Question 1.How many 3digit numbers can be formed by
using the digits 1 to 9 if no digit is repeated?
Question 2.How many 4digit numbers are there with no digit repeated?
Question 3.How many 3digit even numbers can be made using the digits 1,
2, 3, 4, 6, 7, if no digit is repeated?
Question 4.Find the number of 4digit numbers that can be formed using
the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if no digit is repeated. How many of these will be
even?
Question 5.From a committee of 8 persons, in how many ways can we choose
a chairman and a vice chairman assuming one person can not hold more than one
position?
Question 6.Find n if n – 1P3 : nP4 = 1 : 9.
Question 7.Find r if
(i) 5 6 Pr 2 Pr−1 =
(ii) 5 6 Pr Pr−1 = .
Question 8.How many words, with or without meaning, can be formed using
all the letters of the word EQUATION, using each letter exactly once?
Question 9.How many words, with or without meaning can be made from the
letters of the word MONDAY, assuming that no letter is repeated, if. (i) 4
letters are used at a time, (ii) all letters are used at a time, (iii) all
letters are used but first letter is a vowel?
Question 10.In how many of the distinct permutations of the letters in
MISSISSIPPI do the four I’s not come together?
Question 11.In how many ways can the letters of the word PERMUTATIONS be
arranged if the (i) words start with P and end with S, (ii) vowels are all
together, (iii) there are always 4 letters between P and S?
EXERCISE 7.4
Question 1.If nC8 = nC2, find nC 2.
Question 2.Determine n if (i) 2nC2 : nC2 = 12 : 1 (ii) 2nC3 : nC3 = 11 :
1
Question 3.How many chords can be drawn through 21 points on a circle?
Question 4.In how many ways can a team of 3 boys and 3 girls be selected
from 5 boys and 4 girls?
Question 5.Find the number of ways of selecting 9 balls from 6 red balls,
5 white balls and 5 blue balls if each selection consists of 3 balls of each
colour.
Question 6.Determine the number of 5 card combinations out of a deck of
52 cards if there is exactly one ace in each combination.
Question 7.In how many ways can one select a cricket team of eleven from
17 players in which only 5 players can bowl if each cricket team of 11 must
include exactly 4 bowlers?
Question 8.A bag contains 5 black and 6 red balls. Determine the number
of ways in which 2 black and 3 red balls can be selected.
Question 9.In how many ways can a student choose a programme of 5 courses
if 9 courses are available and 2 specific courses are compulsory for every
student?
(Mathematics) : Chapter 8 Binomial Theorem
EXERCISE 8.1
Expand each of the expressions in Exercises 1 to 5.
Using binomial theorem, evaluate each of the following:
Question 6. (96)3
Question 7. (102)5
Question 8. (101)4
Question 9. (99)5
Question 10. Using Binomial Theorem, indicate which number is larger (1.1)10000 or 1000.
Question 11. Find (a + b)4 – (a – b)4. Hence, evaluate ( 3 + 2)4– ( 3 – 2)4 .
Question 12. Find (x + 1)6 + (x – 1)6. Hence or otherwise evaluate ( 2 + 1)6 + ( 2 – 1)6.
Question 13. Show that 9n+1 – 8n – 9 is divisible by 64, whenever n is a positive integer.
EXERCISE 8.2
Find the coefficient of
Question 1. x5 in (x + 3)8 2. a5b7 in (a – 2b)1
Question 2. Write the general term in the expansion of
Question 3. (x2 – y)6
Question 4. (x2 – yx)12, x ≠ 0.
Question 5. Find the 4th term in the expansion of (x – 2y)12.
Question 6. Find the 13th term in the expansion of 18 9 1 3 x x , x ≠ 0. Find the middle terms in the expansions of
Question 7. 3 7 6 3 − x
Question 8. 10 9 3 x + y
Question 9. In the expansion of (1 + a)m+n, prove that coefficients of am and an are equal.
Question 10. The coefficients of the (r – 1)th, rth and (r + 1)th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)n are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. Find n and r.
Question 11. Prove that the coefficient of xn in the expansion of (1 + x)2n is twice the coefficient of xn in the expansion of (1 + x)2n – 1.
Question 12. Find a positive value of m for which the coefficient of x2 in the expansion (1 + x)m is 6.
(Mathematics) : Chapter 9 Sequences and Series
EXERCISE 9.1
Write the first five terms of each of the sequences in Exercises 1 to 6 whose nth
terms are:
Question 1.an = n (n + 2)
Question 2.an = 1 n n +
Question 3.an = 2n
Question 4.an = 2 3 6 n −
Question 5.an = (–1)n–1 5n+1
Question 6.an 2 5 4 n n + = . Find the indicated terms in each of the sequences in Exercises 7 to 10 whose nth terms are:
Question 7.an = 4n – 3; a17, a24
Question 8.an = 2 7 ; 2n n a
Question 9.an = (–1)n – 1n3; a9 Write the first five terms of each of the sequences in Exercises 11 to 13 and obtain the corresponding series:
Question 10.20 ( –2); n 3 a n n a n =
EXERCISE 9.2
Question 1.Find the sum of odd integers from 1 to 2001.
Question 2.Find the sum of all natural numbers lying between 100 and 1000, which are multiples of 5.
Question 3.In an A.P., the first term is 2 and the sum of the first five terms is onefourth of the next five terms. Show that 20th term is –11 2.
Question 4.How many terms of the A.P. – 6, 11 2 − , – 5, … are needed to give the sum –25?
Question 5.In an A.P., if pth term is 1 q and qth term is 1 p , prove that the sum of first pq terms is 1 2 (pq +1), where p ≠ q.
Question 6.If the sum of a certain number of terms of the A.P. 25, 22, 19, … is 11 7 Find the last term. Find the sum to n terms of the A.P., whose kth term is 5k +1
Question 8.If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is (pn + qn2), where p and q are constants, find the common difference.
Question 9.The sums of n terms of two arithmetic progressions are in the ratio 5n + 4 : 9n + 6. Find the ratio of their 18th terms.
Question 10.If the sum of first p terms of an A.P. is equal to the sum of the first q terms, then find the sum of the first (p + q) terms. 1
Question 11.Sum of the first p, q and r terms of an A.P are. a, b and c, respectively. Prove that a (q r) b (r p) c ( p q) 0 p q r − + − + − = 1
Question 12.The ratio of the sums of m and n terms of an A.P. is m2 : n 2.Show that the ratio of mth and nth term is (2m – 1) : (2n – 1). 1
Question 13.If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is 3n2 + 5n and its mth term is 164, find the value of m. 1
Question 14.Insert five numbers between 8 and 26 such that the resulting sequence is an A.P. 1
Question 15.If 1 1 n n n n a b a − b − + + is the A.M. between a and b, then find the value of n.
Question 16.Between 1 and 31, m numbers have been inserted in such a way that the resulting sequence is an A. P. and the ratio of 7th and (m – 1)th numbers is 5 9. Find the value of m.
Question 17.A man starts repaying a loan as first instalment of Rs. 100. If he increases the instalment by Rs 5 every month, what amount he will pay in the 30th instalment?
Question 18.The difference between any two consecutive interior angles of a polygon is 5°. If the smallest angle is 120° , find the number of the sides of the polygon.
EXERCISE 9.3
Question 1.Find the 20th and nth terms of the G.P.
5 5 5
2 4 8
, , , ...
Question 2.Find the 12th term of a G.P. whose 8th term is 192 and the common ratio is 2.
Question 3.The 5th, 8th and 11th terms of a G.P. are p, q and s, respectively. Show that q2 = ps.
Question 4.The 4th term of a G.P. is square of its second term, and the first term is – 3. Determine its 7th term.
Question 5.Which term of the following sequences: (a) 2,2 2,4,... is 128 ? (b) 3,3,3 3,...is729 ? (c) 1 1 1 is 1 3 9 27 19683 , , ,... ?
Question 6.For what values of x, the numbers 2 2 7 7 – ,x,– are in G.P.? Find the sum to indicated number of terms in each of the geometric progressions in Exercises 7 to 10:
Question 7.0.15, 0.015, 0.0015, ... 20 terms.
Question 8.7 , 21 , 3 7 , ... n terms.
Question 9.1, – a, a2, – a3, ... n terms (if a ≠ – 1).
Question 10.x3, x5, x7, ... n terms (if x ≠ ± 1).
Question 11.Evaluate 11 1 (2 3k ) k = Σ + . 1
Question 12.The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is 39 10 and their product is 1. Find the common ratio and the terms.
Question 13.How many terms of G.P. 3, 32, 33, … are needed to give the sum 120?
Question 14.The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is 16 and the sum of the next three terms is 12 8. Determine the first term, the common ratio and the sum to n terms of the G.P.
Question 15.Given a G.P. with a = 729 and 7th term 64, determine S 7.
Question 16.Find a G.P. for which sum of the first two terms is – 4 and the fifth term is 4 times the third term.
Question 17.If the 4th, 10th and 16th terms of a G.P. are x, y and z, respectively. Prove that x, y, z are in G.P.
Question 18.Find the sum to n terms of the sequence, 8, 88, 888, 8888… .
Question 19.Find the sum of the products of the corresponding terms of the sequences 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 and 128, 32, 8, 2, 1 2 20.
Show that the products of the corresponding terms of the sequences a, ar, ar2, …arn – 1 and A, AR, AR2, … ARn – 1 form a G.P, and find the common ratio.
Question 1.Find four numbers forming a geometric progression in which the third term is greater than the first term by 9, and the second term is greater than the 4th by 18.
Question 2.If the pth, qth and rth terms of a G.P. are a, b and c, respectively. Prove that aq – r br – pcP – q =1.
Question 3.If the first and the nth term of a G.P. are a and b, respectively, and if P is the product of n terms, prove that P2 = (ab)n.
Question 4.Show that the ratio of the sum of first n terms of a G.P. to the sum of terms from (n + 1)th to (2n)th term is 1 rn .
Question 5.If a, b, c and d are in G.P. show that (a2 + b2 + c2) (b2 + c2 + d2) = (ab + bc + cd)2
Question 6.Insert two number between 3 and 81 so that the resulting sequence is G.P. 2
Question 7.Find the value of n so that a b a b n n n n + + + + 1 1 may be the geometric mean between a and b.
Question 8.The sum of two numbers is 6 times their geometric means, show that numbers are in the ratio (3+ 2 2 ): (3−2 2).
Question 9.If A and G be A.M. and G.M., respectively between two positive numbers, prove that the numbers are A A G A G ( )( ) ± + −. 30.
The number of bacteria in a certain culture doubles every hour. If there were 30 bacteria present in the culture originally, how many bacteria will be present at the end of 2nd hour, 4th hour and nth hour ?
Question 1.What will Rs 500 amounts to in 10 years after its deposit in a bank which pays annual interest rate of 10% compounded annually?
Question 2.If A.M. and G.M. of roots of a quadratic equation are 8 and 5, respectively, then obtain the quadratic equation
EXERCISE 9.4
Find the sum to n terms of each of the series in Exercises 1 to 7.
Question 1. 1 × 2 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 4 + 4 × 5 +...
Question 2. 1 × 2 × 3 + 2 × 3 × 4 + 3 × 4 × 5 + ...
Question 3. 3 × 12 + 5 × 22 + 7 × 32 + ...
Question 4. 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 + + + × × × ...
Question 5. 52 + 62 + 72 + ... + 202
Question 6 .3 × 8 + 6 × 11 + 9 × 14 + ...
Question 7. 12 + (12 + 22) + (12 + 22 + 32) + ...
Find the sum to n terms of the series in Exercises 8 to 10 whose nth terms is given by
Question 8.n (n+1) (n+4).
Question 9.n2 + 2n
Question nbsp;10.(2n – 1)2
Miscellaneous Exercise On Chapter 9
Question 1.Show that the sum of (m + n)th and (m – n)th terms of an A.P. is equal to twice
the mth term.
Question 2.If the sum of three numbers in A.P., is 24 and their product is 440, find the numbers.
Question 3.Let the sum of n, 2n, 3n terms of an A.P. be S1, S2 and S3, respectively, show that S3 = 3(S2 – S1)
Question 4.Find the sum of all numbers between 200 and 400 which are divisible by 7.
Question 5.Find the sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5.
Question 6.Find the sum of all two digit numbers which when divided by 4, yields 1 as remainder.
Question 7.If f is a function satisfying f (x +y) = f(x) f(y) for all x, y ∈ N such that f(1) = 3 and 1 ( ) 120 n x f x = Σ = , find the value of n.
Question 8.The sum of some terms of G.P. is 315 whose first term and the common ratio are 5 and 2, respectively. Find the last term and the number of terms
Question 9.The first term of a G.P. is 1. The sum of the third term and fifth term is 90. Find the common ratio of G.P.
Question 10.The sum of three numbers in G.P. is 5 6.If we subtract 1, 7, 21 from these numbers in that order, we obtain an arithmetic progression.
Find the numbers.
Question 1.A G.P. consists of an even number of terms. If the sum of all the terms is 5 times the sum of terms occupying odd places, then find its common ratio.
Question 2.The sum of the first four terms of an A.P. is 56.The sum of the last four terms is 12. If its first term is 11, then find the number of terms.
Question 3.If a bx a bx b cx b cx c dx c dx x + − = + − = + − ( ≠ 0) , then show that a, b, c and d are in G.P.
Question 4. Let S be the sum, P the product and R the sum of reciprocals of n terms in a G.P. Prove that P2Rn = Sn.
Question 5.The pth, qth and rth terms of an A.P. are a, b, c, respectively. Show that (q – r )a + (r – p )b + (p – q )c = 0
Question 6.If a 1 1 ,b 1 1 ,c 1 1 b c c a a b are in A.P., prove that a, b, c are in A.P.
Question 7.If a, b, c, d are in G.P, prove that (an + bn), (bn + cn), (cn + dn) are in G.P.
Question 8.If a and b are the roots of x2 – 3x + p = 0 and c, d are roots of x2 – 12x + q = 0, where a, b, c, d form a G.P. Prove that (q + p) : (q – p) = 17:15.
Question 9.The ratio of the A.M. and G.M. of two positive numbers a and b, is m : n. Show that a :b = (m + m2 – n2 ): (m – m2 – n2 ) 20. If a, b, c are in A.P.; b, c, d are in G.P. and 1 , 1 ,1 c d e are in A.P. prove that a, c, e are in G.P.
Question 10.Find the sum of the following series up to n terms: (i) 5 + 55 +555 + … (ii) .6 +. 66 +. 666+…
Question 11.Find the 20th term of the series 2 × 4 + 4 × 6 + 6 × 8 + ... + n terms.
Question 12.Find the sum of the first n terms of the series: 3+ 7 +13 +21 +31 +…
Question 13.If S1, S2, S3 are the sum of first n natural numbers, their squares and their cubes, respectively, show that 9 22 S = S3 (1 + 8S1).
Question 14 .Find the sum of the following series up to n terms: 13 13 22 13 23 33 1 1 3 1 3 5... + + + + + + + + +
Question 15.Show that 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 ( 1) 3 5 1 2 2 3 ( 1) 3 1 ... n n n ... n n n × + × + + × + + = × + × + + × + + .
Question 16.A farmer buys a used tractor for Rs 12000. He pays Rs 6000 cash and agrees to pay the balance in annual instalments of Rs 500 plus 12% interest on the unpaid amount. How much will the tractor cost him?
Question 17.Shamshad Ali buys a scooter for Rs 22000. He pays Rs 4000 cash and agrees to pay the balance in annual instalment of Rs 1000 plus 10% interest on the unpaid amount. How much will the scooter cost him?
Question 18.A person writes a letter to four of his friends. He asks each one of them to copy the letter and mail to four different persons with instruction that they move the chain similarly. Assuming that the chain is not broken and that it costs 50 paise to mail one letter. Find the amount spent on the postage when 8th set of letter is mailed.
(Mathematics) : Chapter 10 Straight Lines
EXERCISE 10.1
Question 1. Draw a quadrilateral in the Cartesian plane, whose vertices are (– 4, 5), (0, 7),
(5, – 5) and (– 4, –2). Also, find its area.
Question 2. The base of an equilateral triangle with side 2a lies along the yaxis such that the midpoint of the base is at the origin. Find vertices of the triangle.
Question 3. Find the distance between P (x1, y1) and Q (x2, y2) when : (i) PQ is parallel to the yaxis, (ii) PQ is parallel to the xaxis.
Question 4. Find a point on the xaxis, which is equidistant from the points (7, 6) and (3, 4).
Question 5. Find the slope of a line, which passes through the origin, and the midpoint of the line segment joining the points P (0, – 4) and B (8, 0).
Question 6. Without using the Pythagoras theorem, show that the points (4, 4), (3, 5) and (–1, –1) are the vertices of a right angled triangle.
Question 7. Find the slope of the line, which makes an angle of 30° with the positive direction of yaxis measured anticlockwise.
Question 8. Find the value of x for which the points (x, – 1), (2,1) and (4, 5) are collinear.
Question 9. Without using distance formula, show that points (– 2, – 1), (4, 0), (3, 3) and (–3, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram.
Question 10. Find the angle between the xaxis and the line joining the points (3,–1) and (4,–2).
Question 11. The slope of a line is double of the slope of another line. If tangent of the angle between them is 3 1 , find the slopes of the lines.
Question 12. A line passes through (x1, y1) and (h, k). If slope of the line is m, show that k – y1 = m (h – x1).
Question 13. If three points (h, 0), (a, b) and (0, k) lie on a line, show that + = 1 k b h a .
Question 14. Consider the following population and year graph (Fig 10.10), find the slope of the line AB and using it, find what will be the population in the year 2010?
EXERCISE 10.2
In Exercises 1 to 8, find the equation of the line which satisfy the given conditions:
Question 1. Write the equations for the xand yaxes.
Question 2. Passing through the point (– 4, 3) with slope 2 1 .
Question 3. Passing through (0, 0) with slope m.
Question 4. Passing through (2, 2 3)and inclined with the xaxis at an angle of 75o.
Question 5. Intersecting the xaxis at a distance of 3 units to the left of origin with slope –2.
Question 6. Intersecting the yaxis at a distance of 2 units above the origin and making an angle of 30o with positive direction of the xaxis.
Question 7. Passing through the points (–1, 1) and (2, – 4).
Question 8. Perpendicular distance from the origin is 5 units and the angle made by the perpendicular with the positive xaxis is 300.
Question 9. The vertices of Δ PQR are P (2, 1), Q (–2, 3) and R (4, 5). Find equation of the median through the vertex R.
Question 10. Find the equation of the line passing through (–3, 5) and perpendicular to the line through the points (2, 5) and (–3, 6).
Question 11. A line perpendicular to the line segment joining the points (1, 0) and (2, 3) divides it in the ratio 1: n. Find the equation of the line.
Question 12. Find the equation of a line that cuts off equal intercepts on the coordinate axes and passes through the point (2, 3).
Question 13. Find equation of the line passing through the point (2, 2) and cutting off intercepts on the axes whose sum is 9.
Question 14. Find equation of the line through the point (0, 2) making an angle 2π 3 with the positive xaxis. Also, find the equation of line parallel to it and crossing the yaxis at a distance of 2 units below the origin.
Question 15. The perpendicular from the origin to a line meets it at the point (–2, 9), find the equation of the line.
Question 16. The length L (in centimetrs) of a copper rod is a linear function of its Celsius temperature C. In an experiment, if L = 124.942 when C = 20 and L= 125.134 when C = 110, express L in terms of C.
Question 17. The owner of a milk store finds that, he can sell 980 litres of milk each week at Rs 14/litre and 1220 litres of milk each week at Rs 16/litre. Assuming a linear relationship between selling price and demand, how many litres could he sell weekly at Rs 17/litre?
Question 18. P (a, b) is the midpoint of a line segment between axes. Show that equation of the line is + = 2 b y a x .
Question 19. Point R (h, k) divides a line segment between the axes in the ratio 1: 2. Find equation of the line.
Question 20. By using the concept of equation of a line, prove that the three points (3, 0), (– 2, – 2) and (8, 2) are collinear
EXERCISE 10.3
Question 1. Reduce the following equations into slope  intercept form and find their slopes
and the y  intercepts.
(i) x + 7y = 0, (ii) 6x + 3y – 5 = 0, (iii) y = 0.
Question 2. Reduce the following equations into intercept form and find their intercepts on
the axes.
(i) 3x + 2y – 12 = 0, (ii) 4x – 3y = 6, (iii) 3y + 2 = 0.
Question 3. Reduce the following equations into normal form. Find their perpendicular distances from the origin and angle between perpendicular and the positive xaxis. (i) x – 3y + 8 = 0, (ii) y – 2 = 0, (iii) x – y = 4.
Question 4. Find the distance of the point (–1, 1) from the line 12(x + 6) = 5(y – 2).
Question 5. Find the points on the xaxis, whose distances from the line 1 3 4 x y + = are 4 units.
Question 6. Find the distance between parallel lines
(i) 15x + 8y – 34 = 0 and 15x + 8y + 31 = 0 (ii) l (x + y) + p = 0 and l (x + y) – r = 0.
Question 7. Find equation of the line parallel to the line 3x − 4y + 2 = 0 and passing through the point (–2, 3).
Question 8. Find equation of the line perpendicular to the line x – 7y + 5 = 0 and having x intercept 3.
Question 9. Find angles between the lines 3x + y = 1and x + 3y = 1.
Question 10. The line through the points (h, 3) and (4, 1) intersects the line 7x − 9y −19 = 0. at right angle. Find the value of h .
Question 11. Prove that the line through the point (x1, y1) and parallel to the line Ax + By + C = 0 is A (x –x1) + B (y – y1) = 0.
Question 12. Two lines passing through the point (2, 3) intersects each other at an angle of 60o. If slope of one line is 2, find equation of the other line.
Question 13. Find the equation of the right bisector of the line segment joining the points (3, 4) and (–1, 2).
Question 14. Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular from the point (–1, 3) to the line 3x – 4y – 16 = 0.
Question 15. The perpendicular from the origin to the line y = mx + c meets it at the point (–1, 2). Find the values of m and c.
Question 16. If p and q are the lengths of perpendiculars from the origin to the lines x cosθ − ysin θ = k cos2θ and x sec θ + y cosec θ = k, respectively, prove that p2 + 4q2 = k2.
Question 17. In the triangle ABC with vertices A (2, 3), B (4, –1) and C (1, 2), find the equation and length of altitude from the vertex A.
Question 18. If p is the length of perpendicular from the origin to the line whose intercepts on the axes are a and b, then show that .
Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 10
Question 1. Find the values of k for which the line (k–3) x – (4 – k2) y + k2 –7k + 6 = 0 is (a) Parallel to the xaxis, (b) Parallel to the yaxis, (c) Passing through the origin.
Question 2. Find the values of θ and p, if the equation x cos θ + y sinθ = p is the normal form of the line 3 x + y + 2 = 0.
Question 3. Find the equations of the lines, which cutoff intercepts on the axes whose sum and product are 1 and – 6, respectively.
Question 4. What are the points on the yaxis whose distance from the line 1 3 4 x + y = is 4 units.
Question 5. Find perpendicular distance from the origin of the line joining the points (cosθ, sin θ) and (cos φ, sin φ).
Question 6. Find the equation of the line parallel to yaxis and drawn through the point of intersection of the lines x – 7y + 5 = 0 and 3x + y = 0.
Question 7. Find the equation of a line drawn perpendicular to the line 1 4 6 x + y = through the point, where it meets the yaxis.
Question 8. Find the area of the triangle formed by the lines y – x = 0, x + y = 0 and x – k = 0.
Question 9. Find the value of p so that the three lines 3x + y – 2 = 0, px + 2 y – 3 = 0 and 2x – y – 3 = 0 may intersect at one point.
Question 10. If three lines whose equations are y = m1x + c1, y = m2x + c2 and y = m3x + c3 are concurrent, then show that m1(c2 – c3) + m2 (c3 – c1) + m3 (c1 – c2) = 0
Question 11. Find the equation of the lines through the point (3, 2) which make an angle of 45o with the line x – 2y = 3.
Question 12. Find the equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of the lines 4x + 7y – 3 = 0 and 2x – 3y + 1 = 0 that has equal intercepts on the axes.
Question 13. Show that the equation of the line passing through the origin and making an angle θ with the line tan θ 1 tanθ y mx c is y m x m + = + = ±− .
Question 14. In what ratio, the line joining (–1, 1) and (5, 7) is divided by the line x + y = 4?
Question 15. Find the distance of the line 4x + 7y + 5 = 0 from the point (1, 2) along the line 2x – y = 0.
Question 16. Find the direction in which a straight line must be drawn through the point (–1, 2) so that its point of intersection with the line x + y = 4 may be at a distance of 3 units from this point.
Question 17. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle has its ends at the points (1, 3) and (– 4, 1). Find the equation of the legs (perpendicular sides) of the triangle.
Question 18. Find the image of the point (3, 8) with respect to the line x +3y = 7 assuming the line to be a plane mirror.
Question 19. If the lines y = 3x +1 and 2y = x + 3 are equally inclined to the line y = mx + 4, find the value of m.
Question 20. If sum of the perpendicular distances of a variable point P (x, y) from the lines x + y – 5 = 0 and 3x – 2y +7 = 0 is always 10. Show that P must move on a line.
Question 21. Find equation of the line which is equidistant from parallel lines 9x + 6y – 7 = 0 and 3x + 2y + 6 = 0.
Question 22. A ray of light passing through the point (1, 2) reflects on the xaxis at point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (5, 3). Find the coordinates of A.
Question 23. Prove that the product of the lengths of the perpendiculars drawn from the points ( a2 − b2 ,0)and (− a2 − b2 ,0)to the line x cosθ y sin θ 1is b2 a b + = .
Question 24. A person standing at the junction (crossing) of two straight paths represented by the equations 2x – 3y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 5 = 0 wants to reach the path whose equation is 6x – 7y + 8 = 0 in the least time. Find equation of the path that he should follow.
(Mathematics) : Chapter 11 Conic Sections
EXERCISE 11.1
In each of the following Exercises 1 to 5, find the equation of the circle with
Question 1.centre (0,2) and radius2.
Question 2.centre (–2,3) and radius 4
Question 3.centre ( 4 , 1 2 1 ) and radius 12 1
Question 4.centre (1,1) and radius 2
Question 5.centre (–a, –b) and radius a2 − b 2.In each of the following Exercises 6 to 9, find the centre and radius of the circles.
Question 6.(x + 5)2 + (y – 3)2 = 36
Question 7.x2 + y2 – 4x – 8y – 45 = 0
Question 8.x2 + y2 – 8x + 10y – 12 = 0
Question 9.2x2 + 2y2 – x = 0
Question 10.Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (4,1) and (6,5) and whose centre is on the line 4x + y = 16.
Question 11.Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (2,3) and (–1,1) and whose centre is on the line x – 3y – 11 = 0.
Question 12.Find the equation of the circle with radius 5 whose centre lies on xaxis and passes through the point (2,3).
Question 13.Find the equation of the circle passing through (0,0) and making intercepts a and b on the coordinate axes.
Question 14.Find the equation of a circle with centre (2,2) and passes through the point (4,5).
Question1 5.Does the point (–2.5, 3.5) lie inside, outside or on the circle x2 + y2 = 25?
EXERCISE 11.2
In each of the following Exercises 1 to 6, find the coordinates of the focus, axis of the parabola, the equation of the directrix and the length of the latus rectum.
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of History Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of History Senior Secondary
Time : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 80
Note:
(i) All questions are compulsory . Marks are indicated
against each question.
(ii) Answer Question Nos. 1 to 4 in not more than 20 words each. Question Nos. 5
to 12 in not more than 80 words each and Question Nos. 13 to 17 in not more than
200 words each.
(iii) place the map inside your answer book and bag it properly so that it is
not detached in handling .
(iv) Write your Roll No. on the Map and also the part you are answering –either
Ancient or Medieval or Modern India.
Note :
1. What are the two major division of the Christian Church? 2
2. State the different between Chauth and Sardeshmukhi. 2
3. Where and why did Akbar built the ‘buland Darwaza’?
4. Why has Kashmir become a disputed problem between India and Pakistan. 2
5. Mention three differences between the Harppan culture and the contemporary
culture of west Asia.
OR
“The Grihastha ashrama was the most important stage in a person’s life” Explain .
6. State the three main different between Jainism and Buddhism
OR
Identify three main factors that led to the establishment of Magtadhan supremacy
7. “ Balban was one of the mian architects of the Delhi Sultanate .” Give three evidences
OR
“Muhammad –bin Tughlaq transferred his capital due to several reasons .” Mention three reasons.
8. How can you say that the invasion of Timur gave a blow to the Delhi sultanate? 3
OR
Give three cause of the downfall of the Vijayanagar empire
9. Identify three lasting reforms of Sher Shah Suri 3
OR
Trace three main features of architecture during Shahjahan’s reign 10. Mention three main features of Akbar’s Rajput Policy. 3.
OR
State three main factors which led to the annexation of Bijapur and Golconda by Aurangzeb.
11. “When an Indian State signed a Subsidiary Alliance, lit virtually signed away its independence.” Why?
OR
How did the British drain India’s wealth to England ? Give three measures adopted by them.
12. State three objectives of the Theosophical Society.
OR
Mention three measures taken by the social reformers to uplift the position of women in Indian society.
13. How was the social and religious life of the people under the Guptas affected by the revival of Brahmanism?
OR
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Sociology Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Sociology Senior Secondary
Instructions:
1. All questions from Section A are compulsory.
2. From Section B, attempt questions from any One optional
Section A
1. What was the name of the religion propagated by Akbar?
1
2. What are the two sects of Jainism?
1
3. What is the meaning of population explosion?
1
4. Define society.
2
5. Differentiate between primary and secondary groups
2
6. What is meant by social process? Give two examples
2
7. What are the four attributes of science?
2
8. Name the four varnas found in India
2
9. Write two similarities between Political Sciences and Sociology.
2
10. What do you mean by normlessness? Explain
4
11. What are the four characteristics of competition?
4
12. Explain the concept of family.
4
13. Describe any two patterns of social change.
4
14. Explain the concept of Buddhism.
4
15. What do you understand by communalism?
4
16. Write any four characterization of tribal society.
4
17. Differentiate between caste and class.
4
18. How unity can be maintained in India
4
19. Describe any four ‘pillars’ of Islam?
4
20. Explain the main causes of poverty in India.
6
21. Describe the development of Sociology in India in your own words.
6
22. What is regionalism? Explain its impact on Indian Society.
6
23. Explain the changes that have taken place in the institution of marriage.
6
24. Discuss in detail the role of technical factors in social change.
6
Section B
Option – I
(Status of Women)
25. What is feminism?
1
26. Distinguish between sex and gender
2
27. What is meant by women’s movement?
2
28. Write a note on sexual harassment at the work place?
4
29. Write about the status of women in medieval period.
6
Option – II
Culture
25. Name the four Vedas.
1
26. What are the two characteristics of culture?
2
27. What is the meaning of Cultural Heritage?
2
28. Explain the concept cultural lag with examples
4
29. Explain the positive and negative impact of television.
6
Marking Scheme
Section A
NCERT Social Science Question Paper (Class  10)
NCERT Social Science Question Paper (Class  10)
(Political Science) : Chapter 1 Power Sharing
Question 1: What are the different forms of power sharing in modern democracies? Give an example of each of these.
Question 2: State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power sharing with an example from the Indian context.
Question 3: After reading this chapter, three students drew different conclusions. Which of these do you agree with and why? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
Question 4: The Mayor of Merchtem, a town near Brussels in Belgium, has defended a ban on speaking French in the town’s schools. He said that the ban would help all nonDutch speakers integrate in this Flemish town. Do you think that this measure is in keeping with the spirit of Belgium’s power sharing arrangements? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
Question 5: Read the following passage and pick out any one of the prudential reasons for power sharing offered in this.
"We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the
dream of Mahatma Gandhi and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution.
Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy. It restores power to the only place
where power belongs in a democracy − in the hands of the people. Given power to
panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase administrative
efficiency. When people participate in the planning and implementation of
developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise greater control over these
schemes. This would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus, Panchayati Raj will
strengthen the foundations of our democracy."
Question 6: Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and
against power sharing.Identify those which are in favour of power sharing and
select the answer using thecodes given below? Power sharing:
A. reduces conflict among different communities
B. decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
C. delays decision making process
D. accommodates diversities
E. increases instability and divisiveness
F. promotes people’s participation in government
G. undermines the unity of a country
Question 7: Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka.
Α. In Belgium, the Dutchspeaking majority people tried to
impose their domination on the minority Frenchspeaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance
of the Sinhalaspeaking majority.
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to
protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and
jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one
prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Question 8: Match list I (forms of power sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
Question 9: Consider the following two statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below:
A. Power sharing is good for democracy.
B. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of these statements are true and false?
(Political Science) : Chapter 2 Federalism
Question 1: Locate the following States on a blank outline political map of India:Manipur, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh and Goa
Question 2: Identify and shade three federal countries (other than India) on a blank outline political map of the world.
Question 3: Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to and one feature that is different from that of Belgium.
Question 4: What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with an example.
Question 5: State any two differences between the local government before and after the constitutional amendment in 1992.
Question 6: Fill in the blanks:
Since the United States is a ____________________ type of
federation, all the
constituent States have equal powers and States are _______________ visa vis
the
federal government. But India is a _________________ type of federation and some
States have more power than others. In India, the ___________________ government
has more powers.
Question 7: Here are three reactions to the language
policy followed in India. Give an argument and an example to support any of
these positions.
Sangeeta: The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity. Arman:
Languagebased States have divided us by making everyone conscious of their
language. Harish: This policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of
English over all other languages.
Question 8: The distinguishing feature of a federal government is:
(a) National government gives some powers to the provincial
governments.
(b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
(d) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.
Question 9: A few subjects in various Lists of the Indian Constitution are given here. Group them under the Union, State and Concurrent Lists as provided in the table below.
A. Defence
Β. Police
C. Agriculture
D. Education
E. Banking
F. Forests
G. Communications
Question 10: Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the powers of the government at that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned against each. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Question 11: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Question 12: Consider the following statements.
A. In a federation the powers of the federal and provincial
governments are clearly demarcated.
B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments
are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their
respective subjects.
C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been
devolved to the local government bodies. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(Political Science) : Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity
Question 1: Discuss three factors that determine the outcomes of politics of social divisions.
Question 2: When does a social difference become a social division?
Question 3: How do social divisions affect politics? Give two examples.
Question 4: ________________ social differences create
possibilities of deep social divisions andtensions.
________________ social differences do not usually lead to conflicts.
Question 5: In dealing with social divisions which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
(a) Due to political competition in a democracy, social
divisions get reflected in politics.
(b) In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a
peaceful manner.
(c) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity.
(d) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the basis of social
divisions.
Question 6: onsider the following three statements.
Α. Social divisions take place when social differences
overlap.
Β. It is possible that a person can have multiple identities.
C. Social divisions exist in only big countries like India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Question 7:Arrange the following statements in a logical sequence and select
the right answers by using the code given below.
Α. But all political expression of social divisions need not
be always dangerous.
B. Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most countries.
C. Parties try to win political support by appealing to social divisions.
D. Some social differences may result in social divisions.
Question 8: Among the following, which country suffered disintegration due to
political fights on the basis of religious and ethnic identities?
(a) Belgium
(b) India
(c) Yugoslavia
(d) Netherlands
Question 9: Read the following passage from a famous speech by Martin Luther king Jr. in 1963. Which social division is he talking about? What are his aspirations and anxieties? Do you see a relationship between this speech and the incident in Mexico Olympics mentioned in this chapter?
"I have a dream that my four little children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the colour of their skin but by the content of their character. Let freedom ring − when we let it ring from every village and every hamlet, from every state and every city, we will be able to speed up that day when all of God’s children − back men and white men, Jews and Gentiles, Protestants and Catholics − will be able to join hands and sing in the words of the old Negro spiritual: 'Free at last! Free at last! Thank God Almighty, we are free at last!' I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: 'we hold these truths to be selfevident: that all men are created equal'."
(Political Science) : Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste
Question 1: Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged in India.
Question 2: State different forms of communal politics with one example each.
Question 3: State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.
Question 4: State two reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.
Question 5: What is the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies?
Question 6: Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.
Question 7: When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:
(a) Biological difference between men and women
(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
(c) Unequal child sex ratio
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies
Question 8: In India seats are reserved for women in
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) State Legislative Assemblies
(c) Cabinets
(d) Panchayati Raj bodies
Question 9: Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics is based on the belief that:
Α. One religion is superior to that of others.
Β. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal
citizens.
C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group
over others.
Question 10: Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
(b) gives official status to one religion
(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion
(d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities
Question 11: Social divisions based on ______________ are peculiar to India.
Question 12: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(Political Science) : Chapter 5 popular Struggles And Movement
(News) CBSE has released guidelines on how to sing the national anthem
CBSE has released guidelines on how to sing the national anthem
CBSE has asked schools to sing the national anthem in proper manner and sing it as stated in the constitution of India. Board has given guidelines on how to sing the anthem including time duration in which the national anthem is to be sung.
In a recent circular the Central Board of Secondary Education stated that " in its framework of the values education lists the Article 51(A) of the Indian Constitution Fundamental Duties that contains 10 principles and the first one is "to abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and the national anthem. The board has framed four behavioral descriptors for students for this principle. The second descriptor entails singing of national anthem with decorum."
In a further link in the circular the board has given the wordings of the full version of the anthem and its playing time which is approximately 52 seconds. "A short version consisting of the first and last lines of the national anthem is also played on certain occasions," it stated.
Playing time of the short version is about 20 seconds. Board has further defined occasions on which the full versions or the short version will be played.
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Sociology (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Sociology (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
नमूना प्रश्नपत्रा
निर्देश: 1 खंड अ के सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य है।
2 खंड ब मे किसी एक एच्छिक से प्रश्न हल करे।
खंड अ
1. अकबर द्वारा चलाये गये धर्म का क्या नाम था?
1
2. जैन धर्म के दो पंथ कौन से है?
1
3 जनसंख्या विस्फोट का क्या अर्थ है? 1
4 समाज की परिभाषा दीजिये। 2
5 प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक समूहों मे अंतर बताये।
2
6 सामाजिक प्रक्रिया से क्या तात्पर्य है? दो उदाहरण दे।
2
7 विज्ञान के चार योगदान कौन से है?
2
8 भारत मे पाये जाने वाले चार वर्णो के नाम बतायें।
2
9 राजनीति शास्त्रा और समाजशास्त्रा के बीच की दो समानताये बतायें।
2
10 आचारहीनता से आप क्या समझते है? समझाइये।
4
11 प्रतियोगिता के चार तत्व कौन से है?
4
12 परिवार की अवधारणा का वर्णन करें।
4
13 सामाजिक परिवर्तन के दो प्रतिमान बताईए। 4
14 बौद्व धर्म की अवधारणा की व्याख्या करें। 4
15 साम्प्रदायिकता से आप क्या समझते है?
4
16 आदिवासी समाज की किहीं चार विशेषताओ का वर्णन करें। 4
17 जाति और वर्ग मे अंतर बताइये।
4
18 भारत मे एकता को कैसे बनाये रख सकते है?
4
19 इस्लाम के चार स्तम्भो की व्याख्या करे।
4
20 भारत में गरीबी के मुख्य कारणे का वर्णन करे। 6
21 भारत मे समाजशास्त्रा के विकास को अपने शब्दो मे वर्णित करे।
6
22 क्षेत्रीयता क्या है? भारतीय समाज पर इसके प्रभाव की व्याख्या करें।
6
23 विवाह की संस्था मे आए परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या करें।
6
24 सामाजिक परिवर्तन मे तकनीकी तत्त्वों की भूमिका की विस्तार से व्याख्या करें।
6
खंड ब
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Accountancy Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Accountancy Senior Secondary
Time: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
Note: The question paper is divided into two sections A and B. Attempt all questions of Section A and any one question of Section B:
Section A
Note: All questions are compulsory
1. Give an example each of capital expenditure and revenue expenditure. 1
2. What is the legal provision of Profit sharing ratio if nothing is given in ‘Partnership Deed”? 1
3. A student of Accountancy feels that a Simple Cash Book always shows a credit balance. Give your opinion. 2
4. Define anyone of the following:
i) Vouchers
ii) Supporting Vouchers
iii) Accounting Vouchers 2
5. What is Bank Reconciliation Statement? 2
6. Give the names of any four assets in liquidity order. 2
7. Give the formulae of ‘Sacrificing ratio’ and ‘Gaining Ratio’. 2
8. Explain in brief the term ‘Accounting’ and give any two differences between bookkeeping and Accounting. 3
9. What is ‘goingconcern Assumption’? Explain briefly its significance. 3
10. The Capital of is a business concern is Rs. 1,00,000. The value of assets
is Rs. 2,00,000. Complete the accounting equation with four suitable liabilities
assuming
imaginary figures. 4
11. Suppose the bank account in your ledger shows a credit balance. What will
be the effect of following transactions in your pass book balance.
(i) One of your customers deposit some amount directly into your bank account.
(ii) Bank Charged interest on the amount overdrawn by you.
(iii)A cheque deposited last week by you has been dishonoured. Bank charged some
amount on account of it.
(iv)Under your standing instructions Bank paid your insurance premium to the
Insurance Company. 4
12. A, B and C are equal partners. B retires on March 1, 1997 and his share is taken over by A and C in the ratio of 3:5. Profits upto Dec.97 is Rs. 18,000. Total Goodwill of the firm is Rs. 24,000. How much will B get from A and C for goodwill and how much will he get for profit for 1997? Pass necessary journal entries. 5
13. What is meant by the term ‘Forfeiture of Shares’? Can forfeited shares be reissued at discount? If so, to what extent? Where would you transfer the balance left in the shares forfeited account of the reissue of such shares? 5
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Geography Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Geography Senior Secondary
Time : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
(i) There are 21 questions in all.
(ii) all question are compulsory.
(iii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
(iv) Question numbers 1 and 2 are on filling outline maps of the world and India
respectively. Each question contains 4 testitems of very short answers of
1 mark each.
(v) Question number 3 to 8, 19 and 20 are short answer question. Answer to these
questions should not exceed 60 words each.
(vi) Question number 9 to 14 and 21 are also short answer question. Answer to
these questions should not exceed 10 words.
(vii) Question numbers 15 to 18 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
Answer of each of these questions should not exceed 140 words.
(viii) Outline maps of the WORLD and INDIA provided to you must be attached with
your answer books.
(ix) Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps in illustrating your
answer is allowed.
(x) Answers of question number 19 to 21 should be given from any ONE of the
OPTIONAL MODULES.
Q.1 On the outline map of the world provided mark and label each of the following correctly.
(4 x 1) = 4
(1.1) Andes range;
(1.2) River Nile;
(1.3) Plateau of Tibet;
(1.4) Prairies
Q.2 On the outline map of the India provided mark and label each of the following correctly.
(2.1) Aravali Range
(2.2) A leading cottontextile center in Gujarat
(2.3) The oldest atomic power station in India
(2.4) A newly developed major port in Tamil Nadu (4 x 1) = 4
Q.3 Name six factor which influence the climate of a place (6 x ½ ) = 3
Q.4 Name three major parallel ranges of the Himalayas and state the height of each. (1½ x 1½ ) = 3
Q.5 Why is earth considered a unique planet? Give three reasons in support of your answer. (3 x 1) = 3
Q.6 Compare and contrast the latitudinal location and natural vegetation of the Tundra region with those of the Hot Desert region. (1 ½ + 1 ½ ) = 3)
Q.7 How does land use change with time? Give three examples. (3x1)=3
Q.8 Explain three important physical factors responsibly for uneven distribution of population in India. (3x1)=3
Q.9 What are ocean currents? Name three factors which influence the ocean currents . (1+3)=4
Q.10 Describe briefly the important characteristics of the equatorial Lowlands region with reference to its location, climate, natural vegetation and animal life. (4x1)=4
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Maths Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Maths Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Maths (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Maths (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Home Science Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Home Science Senior Secondary
SECTIONA (भागअ)
QBCode : NIOSHQ010001000411
1. Predict one possible consequence of extreme depression in an
adolescent and state why this happens. 1
किशोरों में यदि अत्यधिक अकेलेपन की भावना आ जाए तो उससे होने वाला एक परिणाम क्या
होगा और क्यों?
2. Who has greater influence on a child during middle childhood
a loving parent or a good friend? Why?
मध्य बाल्यावस्था में बालक पर किसका प्रभाव अधिक होता है अभिभावक या अच्छे मित्रा
का? क्यों? 1
3. In Batik dyes are applied in cold condition. Justify by
giving one reason.
बाटिक की रंगाई ठंडे रंगों से होती है। एक कारण देकर पुष्टि कीजिए।
1
4. How is weaving and knitting differentiated in terms of care
and maintenance?
देखभाल और अनुरक्षण के संदर्भ में बुनाई (वीविंग) और निटिंग में एक अन्तर बताइए।
1
5. Write any two advantages of blended fabrics.
मिश्रित वस्त्रों के दो लाभ बताइए। 1
6. What does the label of ‘Sanforised’ on a fabric indicate?
वस्त्रा पर ‘सैन्फराइज़्ड’ का लेबल किस बात का सूचक है?
1
7. Give two reasons how food helps regulate body processes.
शरीर की क्रियाओं को नियमित रखने मंे भोजन के योगदान के दो कारण बताइये।
1
8. List two important characteristics of yarn.
सूत के दो महत्वपूर्ण गुण कौन से हैं? 1
9. Define ‘Health’ as given by W.H.O.
विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन ;ॅण्भ्ण्व्ण्द्ध ने स्वास्थ्य को किस प्रकार परिभाषित किया
है? 1
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Home Science (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Home Science (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary
Question Paper Design
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Business Studies Senior Secondary
(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of Business Studies Senior Secondary
Question Paper Design
Sub : Commerce (Business Studies)
Class : XII
Paper : _____________
Marks : 100
Duration : 3
hours
1. Weightage by objectives
Objective 
Marks 
%age of the

Knowledge  34  34% 
Understanding  46  46% 
Appication  20  20% 
Skill     
2. Weightage by types of questions
Type 
Number of Questions 
Total Marks 
Estimated Time

Long answer questions  8  57  96 
Short answer questions  8  31  72 
Very short answer questions  6  12  12 
22  100  180 Minutes 3 hours 