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NCERT English Question Paper (Class - 10)

NCERT  English Question Paper (Class - 10)

Chapter 1 A Letter to God

Question 1: What did Lencho hope for?

Question 2: Why did Lencho say the raindrops were like ‘new coins’?

Question 3: How did the rain change? What happened to Lencho’s fields?

Question 4: What were Lencho’s feelings when the hail stopped?

Question 5: Who or what did Lencho have faith in? What did he do?

Question 6: Who read the letter?

Question 7: What did the postmaster do then?

Question 8: Who does Lencho have complete faith in? Which sentences in the story tell you this?

Question 9: Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter ‘God’?

Question 10: Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him? Why/Why not?

Question 11: Who does Lencho think has taken the rest of the money? What is the irony in the situation? [Remember that the irony of a situation is an unexpected aspect of it. An ironic situation is strange or amusing because it is the opposite of what is expected.]

Question 12: Are there people like Lencho in the real world? What kind of a person would you say he is? You may select appropriate words from the box to answer the question.

Question 13: There are two kinds of conflict in the story: between humans and nature, and between humans themselves. How are these conflicts illustrated?

Question 14: Was Lencho surprised to find a letter for him with money in it?

Question 15: What made him angry?

Question 16: There are different names in different parts of the world for storms,depending on their nature. Can you match the names in the box with theirdescriptions below, and fill in the blanks? You may use a dictionary to help

Question 17: Match the sentences in Column A with the meanings of ‘hope’ in Column B.

Question 18: Relative Clauses Join the sentences given below using who, whom, whose, which as suggested.

Question 19: Find sentences in the story with negative words, which express the following ideas emphatically.

Question 20: In pairs, find metaphors from the story to complete the table below. Try to say what qualities are being compared. One has been done for you.

Chapter 2 Long Walk to Freedom

Oral Comprehension Check

Question 1: Where did the ceremonies take place? Can you name any public buildings in India that are made of sandstone?

Question 2: Can you say how 10 May is an ‘autumn day’ in South Africa?

Question 3: At the beginning of his speech, Madela mentions “an extraordinary human disaster”. What does he mean by this? What is the “glorious … human achievement” he speaks of at the end?

Question 4: What does Mandela thank the international leaders for?

Question 5: What ideals does he set out for the future of South Africa?

Question 6: What do the military generals do? How has their attitude changed, and why?

Question 7: Why were two national anthems sung?

Question 8: How does Mandela describe the systems of government in his country (i) in the first decade, and (ii) in the final decade, of the twentieth century?

Question 9: What does courage mean to Mandela?

Question 10: Which does he think is natural, to love or to hate?

Thinking About the Text

Question 1: Why did such a large number of international leaders attend the inauguration? Whatdid it signify the triumph of?

Question 2: What does Mandela mean when he says he is “simply the sum of all those Africanpatriots” who had gone before him?

Question 3: Would you agree that the “depths of oppression” create “heights of character? How does Mandela illustrate this? Can you add your own examples to this argument?

Question 4: How did Mandela’s understanding of freedom change with age and experience?

Question 5: How did Mandela’s ‘hunger for freedom’ change his life?

Thinking About Language

Question 1: There are nouns in the text (formation, government) which are formed from the corresponding verbs (form, govern) by suffixing − (at)ion or ment. There may be change in the spelling of some verb − noun pairs: such as rebel, rebellion; constitute, constitution.

Question 2: Here are some more examples of ‘the’ used with proper names. Try to say what these sentences mean. (You may consult a dictionary if you wish. Look at the entry for ‘the’)

Question 3: Match, the italicised phrases in Column A with the phrase nearest meaning in Column B. (Hint: First look for the sentence in the text which the phrase in column A occurs.)
Oral Comprehension Check

Question 4: What “twin obligations” does Mandela mention?

Question 5: What did being free mean to Mandela as a boy, and as a student? How does he contrast these “transitory freedoms” with “the basic and honourable freedoms”?

Question 6: Does Mandela think the oppressor is free? Why/Why not?

Chapter 3 Two Stories About Flying

Question 1: Why was the young seagull afraid to fly? Do you think all young birds are afraid to make their first flight, or are some birds more timid than others? Do you think a human baby also finds it a challenge to take its first steps?

Question 2: “The sight of the food maddened him.” What does this suggest? What compelled the young seagull to finally fly?

Question 3:  “They were beckoning to him, calling shrilly. “Why did the seagull’s father and mother threaten him and cajole him to fly?

Question 4: Have you ever had a similar experience, where your parents encouraged you to do something that you were too scared to try? Discuss this in pairs or groups.

Question 5: In the case of a bird flying, it seems a natural act, and a foregone conclusion that it should succeed. In the examples you have given in answer to the previous question, was your success guaranteed, or was it important for you to try, regardless of a possibility of failure?

Question 6: “I’ll take the risk.” What is the risk? Why does the narrator take it?

Question 7: Describe the narrator’s experience as he flew the aeroplane into the storm.

Question 8: Why does the narrator say, “I landed and was not sorry to walk away from the old Dakota…”?

Question 9: What made the woman in the control centre look at the narrator strangely?

Question 10: Who do you think helped the narrator to reach safely? Discuss this among yourselves and give reasons for your answer.

Question 11: Try to guess the meanings of the word ‘black’ in the sentences given below. Check the meanings in the dictionary and find out whether you have guessed right.

1. Go and have a bath; your hands and face are absolutely black __________.
2. The taxi-driver gave Ratan a black look as he crossed the road when the traffic light was green. __________
3. The bombardment of Hiroshima is one of the blackest crimes against humanity. __________
4. Very few people enjoy Harold Pinter’s black comedy. __________
5. Sometimes shopkeepers store essential goods to create false scarcity and then sell these in black. __________
6. Villagers had beaten the criminal black and blue. __________

Question 12: Match the phrases given under Column A with their meanings given under Column B:

Question 13: We know that the word ‘fly’ (of birds/insects) means to move through air using wings. Tick the words which have the same or nearly the same meaning.

Chapter 4 From the Diary of Anne Frank

Question 1: Do you keep a diary? Given below under ‘A’ are some terms we use to describe a written record of personal experience. Can you match them with their descriptions under ‘B’? (You may look up the terms in a dictionary if you wish.)

Question 2: Here are some entries from personal records. Use the definitions above to decide which of the entries might be from a diary, a journal, a log or a memoir. (i) I woke up very late today and promptly got a scolding from Mum! I can’t help it − how can I miss the FIFA World Cup matches?

Question 3: Why does Anne provide a brief sketch of her life?

Question 4: What tells you that Anne loved her grandmother?

Question 5: Was Anne right when she said that the world would not be interested in the musings of a thirteen-year-old girl?

Question 6: There are some examples of diary or journal entries in the ‘Before You Read’ section. Compare these with what Anne writes in her diary. What language was the diary originally written in? In what way is Anne’s dairy different?

Question 7: Why does Anne need to give a brief sketch about her family? Does she treat ‘Kitty’ as an insider or an outsider?

Question 8: How does Anne feel about her father, her grandmother, Mrs Kuperus and Mr Keesing? What do these tell you about her?

Question 9: What does Anne write in her first essay?

Question 10: Anne says teachers are most unpredictable. Is Mr Keesing unpredictable? How?

Question 11: What do these statements tell you about Anne Frank as a person?

(i) We don’t seem to be able to get any closer, and that’s the problem. Maybe it’s my fault that we don’t confide in each other.
(ii) I don’t want to jot down the facts in this diary the way most people would, but I want the diary to be my friend.
(iii) Margot went to Holland in December, and I followed in February, when I was plunked down on the table as a birthday present for Margot.
(iv) If you ask me, there are so many dummies that about a quarter of the class should be kept back, but teachers are the most unpredictable creatures on earth.
(v) Anyone could ramble on and leave big spaces between the words, but the trick was to come up with convincing arguments to prove the necessity of taking.

Question 12: Why was Mr Keesing annoyed with Anne? What did he ask her to do?

Question 13: How did Anne justify her being a chatterbox in her essay?

Question 14: Do you think Mr Keesing was a strict teacher?

Question 15: What made Mr Keesing allow Anne to talk in class?

Question 16: Match the compound words under ‘A’ with their meanings under ‘B’. Use each in sentence.

Question 17: Phrasal Verbs Find the sentences in the lesson that have the phrasal verbs given below. Match them with their meanings.

Question 18:  Idioms
1. Here are a few sentences from the text which have idiomatic expressions. Can you say what each means? (You might want to consult a dictionary first.)

Question 19: You have read the expression ‘not to lose heart’ in this text. Now find out the meanings of the following expressions using the word ‘heart’. Use each of them in a sentence of your own.

Question 20: Contracted Forms 1. Make a list of the contracted forms in the text. Rewrite them as full forms of two words.

Chapter Chapter 5 The Hundred Dresses

Question 1: Where in the classroom does Wanda sit and why?

Question 2: Where does Wanda live? What kind of a place do you think it is?

Question 3: When and why do Peggy and Maddie notice Wanda’s absence?

Question 4:  What do you think “to have fun with her” means?

Question 5: In what way was Wanda different from the other children?

Question 6: Did Wanda have a hundred dresses? Why do you think she said she did?

Question 7: Why is Maddie embarrassed by the questions Peggy asks Wanda? Is she also like Wanda, or is she different?

Question 8: How is Wanda seen as different by the other girls? How do they treat her?

Question 9: How does Wanda feel about the dresses game? Why does she say that she has a hundred dresses?

Question 10: Why does Maddie stand by and not do anything? How is she different from Peggy? (Was Peggy’s friendship important to Maddie? Why? Which lines in the text tell you this?)

Question 11: What does Miss Mason think of Wanda’s drawings? What do the children think of them? How do you know?

Question 12: Why didn’t Maddie ask Peggie to stop teasing Wanda? What was she afraid of?

Question 13: Who did Maddie think would win the drawing contest? Why?

Question 14: Who won the drawing contest? What had the winner drawn?

Question 15: Combine the following to make sentences like those above.

1. This is the bus (what kind of bus?) It goes to Agra. (use which or that)
2. I would like to buy (a) shirt (which shirt?). (The) shirt is in the shop window. (use which or that)
3. You must break your fast at a particular time (when?). You see the moon in the sky. (use when)
4. Find a word (what kind of word?). It begins with the letter Z. (use which or that).
5. Now find a person (what kind of person). His or her name begins with the letter Z. (use whose)
6. Then go to a place (what place?). There are no people whose name begins with Z in that place. (use where)

Question 16:  1. Can you say whose point of view the italicised words express?

(i) But on Wednesday, Peggy and Maddie, who sat down front with other children who got good marks and who didn’t track in a whole lot of mud, did notice that Wanda wasn’t there.
(ii) Wands Petronski. Most of the children in Room Thirteen didn’t have names like that. They had names easy to say, like Thomas, Smith or Allen.

Question 17: Look at this sentence. The italicised adverb expresses an opinion or point of view. Obviously, the only dress Wanda had was the blue one she wore every day. (This was obvious to the speaker.)

Chapter 6 The Hundred Dresses(2)

Question 1: What did Mr Petronski’s letter say?

Question 2: Is Miss Mason angry with the class, or is she unhappy and upset?

Question 3:
How does Maddie feel after listening to the note from Wanda’s father?

Question 4: What does Maddie want to do?

Question 5: What excuses does Peggy think up for her behaviour? Why?

Question 6: What are Maddie’s thoughts as they go to Boggins Heights?

Question 7: Why does Wanda’s house remind Maddie of Wanda’s blue dress?

Question 8: What does Maddie think hard about? What important decision does she come to?

Question 9: Why do you think Wanda’s family moved to a different city? Do you think life there was going to be different for their family?

Question 10: Maddie thought her silence was as bad as Peggy’s teasing. Was she right?

Question 11: Peggy says, “I never thought she had the sense to know we were making fun of her anyway. I thought she was too dumb. And gee, look how she can draw!” What led Peggy to believe that Wanda was dumb? Did she change her opinion later?

Question 12: What did the girls write to Wanda?

Question 13: Did they get a reply? Who was more anxious for a reply, Peggy or Maddie? How do

Question 14: How did the girls know that Wanda liked them even though they had teased her?

Question 15: What important decision did Maddie make? Why did she have to think hard to do so?

Question 16: Why do you think Wanda gave Maddie and Peggy the drawings of the dresses? Why are they surprised?

Question 17: Do you think Wanda really thought the girls were teasing her? Why or why not?

Question 18: Here are thirty adjectives describing human qualities. Discuss them with your partner and put them in the two word webs (given below) according to whether you think they show positive or negative qualities. You can consult a dictionary if you are not sure of the meanings of some of the words. You may also add to the list the positive or negative ‘pair’ of a given words.

Question 19: What adjectives can we use to describe Peggy, Wanda and Maddie? You can choose adjectives from the list above. You can also add some of your own.

Question 20: 1.Find the sentences in the story with the following phrasal verbs.

Question 21: Colours are used to describe feelings, moods and emotions. Match the following ‘colour expressions’ with a suggested paraphrase.

Chapter 7 Glimpses of India

(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of English Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Question Paper Of English Senior Secondary

Time: Three Hours

Maximum Marks: 100

1. Read the following extracts carefully Choose any ONE extract and answer the questions that follows:

It was good that I lost my sight when I did, because having no memories of seeing there was nothing to look back to, nothing to miss. I went blind in November 1937. At that rime we were living in Gujrat, in the province of Punjab in northern India. After my sickness we moved to Lahore, a few miles away, but the number of relatives who come to sympathies made my father ask for another transfer, this time to karnal, where we had neither friends nor relatives. There we got a cottage on the canal bank built in very peaceful and quiet surroundings.

(i) Who is the I in the passage?    1
(ii) Which sentence tells us that the author was not born blind?  1
(iii) When and where did it happen?   1
(iv) Why was his father eager for a transfer?   1
(v) Which word in the passage mean the same as “expressing a feeling of concern”  1


Jagdish Babu had come form a distant regional and was alone. In the hustle and bustle of the market – place, in the clamour of the café everything seemed unrelated to himself. May be after living here for a while an growing used to it, he’d start feeling some intimacy in the surroundings. But today the place seemed alien. Then he began remembering nostalgically the people of his village region, the school and college boys there, and café in the nearby town.

Tea Sha’b

Jagdish Babu flicked the ash from his cigarette. In the boy’s pronunciation of shab he sensed something which he has been missing. He started to follow up the speculation – ‘what’s your name?

(i) What were Jagdish Babu’s feeling while sitting in the café?    1
(ii) What in the boy cought jagdish Babu’s attention?    1
(iii) What did Jagdish Babu sense?   1
(iv) Which two words /phrases in the passage refer to ‘loud confused noise’  2

2. Answer the following in about 60-65 word: -

a) What is the truth that Aradhana wanted to find out? What did she actually discover?


b) What would happen to earth after we have exhausted our resources of oil and coal?

Mention two effects.

3. Answer any 3 of the following in about 20-25 words each. (2x3 = 6)

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Data Entry Operations Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Data Entry Operations Senior Secondary

1. Basics of Computer

  • Computer Organization
  • Input and Output Devices
  • System Software and Application Software
  • Computer Language
  • Compiler and Assembler

2. Operating System

  • Elements of Windows XP
  • Desktop Elements
  • Locating Files and Folders
  • Changing System Setting
  • File Management in Windows
  • Installation of Software and Hardware

3. Basics of Word Processing

  • Starting Word Program
  • Word Screen Layout
  • Typing Screen Objects
  • Managing Documents
  • Protecting and Finding Documents
  • Printing Documents

4. Formatting Documents

  • Working with text
  • Formatting Text
  • Formatting Paragraphs
  • Bulleted and Numbered Lists
  • Copying and Moving Text
  • Spelling and Grammar
  • Page Formatting
  • Creating Tables

5. Mail Merge

  • Types of document in Mail merge
  • Creating data Source
  • Creating Mailing Labels
  • Merging Data into Main Document

6. Basics of Spreadsheet

  • Selecting, Adding and Renaming Worksheets
  • Modifying a Worksheet
  • Resizing Rows and Columns
  • Workbook Protection 7. Formatting Worksheets
  • Formatting Toolbar
  • Formatting Cells
  • Formatting Rows and Columns
  • Formatting Worksheets Using Styles
  • Protect and Unprotect Worksheets

NCERT Hindi Question Paper (Class - 10)

NCERT  Hindi Question Paper (Class-10)

Chapter 1 Soor Das ke Pad

1- गोपियों द्वारा उद्धव को भाग्यवान कहने में क्या व्यंग्य निहित है?

2- उद्धव के व्यवहार की तुलना किस-किस से की गई है?

3- गोपियों ने किन-किन उदाहरणों के माध्यम से उद्धव को उलाहने दिए हैं?

4- उद्धव द्वारा दिए गए योग के संदेश ने गोपियों की विरहाग्नि में घी का काम कैसे किया?

5- ‘मरजादा न लही’ के माध्यम से कौन-सी मर्यादा न रहने की बात की जा रही है?

6- कृष्ण के प्रति अपने अनन्य प्रेम को गोपियों ने किस प्रकार अभिव्यक्त किया है?

7- गोपियों ने उद्धव से योग की शिक्षा कैसे लोगों को देने की बात कही है?

8- प्रस्तुत पदों के आधार पर गोपियों का योग-साधना के प्रति दृष्टिकोण स्पष्ट करें।

9- गोपियों के अनुसार राजा का धर्म क्या होना चाहिए?

10- गोपियों को कृष्ण में ऐसे कौन-से परिवर्तन दिखाई दिए जिनके कारण वे अपना मन वापस पा लेने की बात कहती हैं?

11- गोपियों ने अपने वाव्फ़चातुर्य के आधार पर ज्ञानी उद्धव को परास्त कर दिया, उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य की विशेषताएँ लिखिए?

12- संकलित पदों को ध्यान में रखते हुए सूर के भ्रमरगीत की मुख्य विशेषताएँ बताइए? रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

13- गोपियों ने उद्धव के सामने तरह-तरह के तर्क दिए हैं, आप अपनी कल्पना से और तर्क दीजिए।

14- उद्धव ज्ञानी थे, नीति की बातें जानते थे_ गोपियों के पास ऐसी कौन-सी शक्ति थी जो उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य में मुखरित हो उठी?

15- गोपियों ने यह क्यों कहा कि हरि अब राजनीति पढ़ आए हैं? क्या आपको गोपियों के इस कथन का विस्तार समकालीन राजनीति में नजर आता है,
स्पष्ट कीजिए। पाठेतर सक्रियता प्रस्तुत पदों की सबसे बड़ी विशेषता है गोपियों की ‘वाग्विदग्धता’। आपने ऐसे और चरित्रें के बारे में पढ़ा या सुना होगा जिन्होंने अपने वाव्फ़चातुर्य के आधार पर अपनी एक विशिष्ट पहचान बनाई_ जैसेμबीरबल, तेनालीराम, गोपालभाँड, मुल्ला नसीरुद्दीन आदि। अपने किसी मनपसंद चरित्र के कुछ किस्से संकलित कर एक अलबम तैयार करें। सूर रचित अपने प्रिय पदों को लय व ताल के साथ गाएँ।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

13- गोपियों ने उद्धव के सामने तरह-तरह के तर्क दिए हैं, आप अपनी कल्पना से और तर्क दीजिए।

14- उद्धव ज्ञानी थे, नीति की बातें जानते थे_ गोपियों के पास ऐसी कौन-सी शक्ति थी जो उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य में मुखरित हो उठी?

15- गोपियों ने यह क्यों कहा कि हरि अब राजनीति पढ़ आए हैं? क्या आपको गोपियों के इस कथन का विस्तार समकालीन राजनीति में नजर आता है, स्पष्ट कीजिए।

Chapter 2 Ram Lakshman Parshuram Samvad

राम-लक्ष्मण-परशुराम संवाद


1- परशुराम के क्रोध करने पर लक्ष्मण ने धनुष के टूट जाने के लिए कौन-कौन से तर्क दिए?

2- परशुराम के क्रोध करने पर राम और लक्ष्मण की जो प्रतिक्रियाएँ हुईं उनके आधार पर दोनों के स्वभाव की विशेषताएँ अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

3- लक्ष्मण और परशुराम के संवाद का जो अंश आपको सबसे अच्छा लगा उसे अपने शब्दों में संवाद शैली में लिखिए।

4- परशुराम ने अपने विषय में सभा में क्या-क्या कहा, निम्न पद्यांश के आधार पर लिखिएμ
बाल ब्रह्मचारी अति कोही।
भुजबल भूमि भूप बिनु कीन्ही।
सहसबाहुभुज छेदनिहारा।
बिस्वबिदित क्षत्रियकुल द्रोही।।
बिपुल बार महिदेवन्ह दीन्ही।।
परसु बिलोकु महीपकुमारा।।
मातु पितहि जनि सोचबस करसि महीसकिसोर।
गर्भन्ह के अर्भक दलन परसु मोर अति घोर।।

5- लक्ष्मण ने वीर योद्धा की क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ बताईं?

6- साहस और शक्ति के साथ विनम्रता हो तो बेहतर है। इस कथन पर अपने विचार लिखिए।

7- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) बिहसि लखनु बोले मृदु बानी। अहो मुनीसु महाभट मानी।।
पुनि पुनि मोहि देखाव कुठारू। चहत उड़ावन फूंँकि पहारू।।

(ख) इहाँ कुम्हड़बतिया कोउ नाहीं। जे तरजनी देखि मरि जाहीं।।
देखि कुठारु सरासन बाना। मैं कछु कहा सहित अभिमाना।।

(ग) गाधिसूनु कह हृदय हसि मुनिहि हरियरे सूझ।
अयमय खाँड़ न ऊखमय अजहुँ न बूझ अबूझ।।

8- पाठ के आधार पर तुलसी के भाषा सौंदर्य पर दस पंक्तियाँ लिखिए।

9- इस पूरे प्रसंग में व्यंग्य का अनूठा सौंदर्य है। उदाहरण के साथ स्पष्ट कीजिए।

10- निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार पहचान कर लिखिएμ
(क) बालकु बोलि बधौं नहि तोही।

(ख) कोटि कुलिस सम बचनु तुम्हारा।

(ग) तुम्ह तौ कालु हाँक जनु लावा।
बार बार मोहि लागि बोलावा।।

(घ) लखन उतर आहुति सरिस भृगुबरकोपु कृसानु।
बढ़त देखि जल सम बचन बोले रघुकुलभानु।।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

11- फ्सामाजिक जीवन में क्रोध की जरूरत बराबर पड़ती है। यदि क्रोध न हो तो मनुष्य दूसरे के द्वारा पहुँचाए जाने वाले बहुत से कष्टों की चिर-निवृत्ति का उपाय ही न कर सके।य्
आचार्य रामचंद्र शुक्ल जी का यह कथन इस बात की पुष्टि करता है कि क्रोध हमेशा नकारात्मक भाव तुलसीदास

Chapter 3 Dev ke Saviaya aur Kavitt


1- कवि ने ‘श्रीब्रजदूलह’ किसके लिए प्रयु क्त किया है और उन्हें संसार रूपी मंदिर का दीपक क्यों कहा है?

2- पहले सवैये में से उन पंक्तियों को छाँटकर लिखिए जिनमें अनुप्रास और रूपक अलंकार का प्रयोग हुआ है?

3- निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों का काव्य-सौंदर्य स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
पाँयनि नूपुर मंजु बजैं, कटि किकिनि कै धुनि की मधुराई।
साँवरे अंग लसै पट पीत, हिये हुलसै बनमाल सुहाई।

4- दूसरे कवित्त के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें कि ऋतुराज वसंत के बाल-रूप का वर्णन परंपरागत वसंत वर्णन से किस प्रकार भिन्न है।

5- ‘प्रातहि जगावत गुलाब चटकारी दै’μ इस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए।

6- चाँदनी रात की सुंदरता को कवि ने किन-किन रूपों में देखा है?

7- ‘प्यारी राधिका को प्रतिबिब सो लगत चंद’μइस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट करते हुए बताएँ कि इसमें कौन-सा अलंकार है?

8- तीसरे कवित्त के आधार पर बताइए कि कवि ने चाँदनी रात की उज्ज्वलता का वर्णन करने के लिए किन-किन उपमानों का प्रयोग किया है?

9- पठित कविताओं के आधार पर कवि देव की काव्यगत विशेषताएँ बताइए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

10- आप अपने घर की छत से पूर्णिमा की रात देखिए तथा उसके सौंदर्य को अपनी कलम से शब्दबद्ध कीजिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

भारतीय ऋतु चक्र में छह ऋतुएँ मानी गई हैं, वे कौन-कौन सी हैं?
‘ग्लोबल वार्मिंग’ के कारण ऋतुओं में क्या परिवर्तन आ रहे हैं? इस समस्या से निपटने के लिए
आपकी क्या भूमिका हो सकती है?

Chapter 4 Jai Sankar Prasad Atmkadya

जयशंकर प्रसाद आत्मकथ्य


1- कवि आत्मकथा लिखने से क्यों बचना चाहता है?

2- आत्मकथा सुनाने के संदर्भ में ‘अभी समय भी नहीं’ कवि ऐसा क्यों कहता है?

3- स्मृति को ‘पाथेय’ बनाने से कवि का क्या आशय है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) मिला कहाँ वह सुख जिसका मैं स्वप्न देखकर जाग गया।
आलिगन में आते-आते मुसक्या कर जो भाग गया।

(ख) जिसके अरुण कपोलों की मतवाली सुंदर छाया में।
अनुरागिनी उषा लेती थी निज सुहाग मधुमाया में।

5- ‘उज्ज्वल गाथा कैसे गाऊँ, मधुर चाँदनी रातों की’μकथन के माध्यम से कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?

6- ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कविता की काव्यभाषा की विशेषताएँ उदाहरण सहित लिखिए।

7- कवि ने जो सुख का स्वप्न देखा था उसे कविता में किस रूप में अभिव्यक्त किया है?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- इस कविता के माध्यम से प्रसाद जी के व्यक्तित्व की जो झलक मिलती है, उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

9- आप किन व्यक्तियों की आत्मकथा पढ़ना चाहेंगे और क्यों?

10- कोई भी अपनी आत्मकथा लिख सकता है। उसके लिए विशिष्ट या बड़ा होना जरूरी नहीं। हरियाणा राज्य के गुड़गाँव में घरेलू सहायिका के रूप में काम करने वाली बेबी हालदार की आत्मकथा फ्आलो अांधारिय् बहुतों के द्वारा सराही गई। आत्मकथात्मक शैली में अपने बारे में कुछ लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

किसी भी चर्चित व्यक्ति का अपनी निजता को सार्वजनिक करना या दूसरों का उनसे ऐसी अपेक्षा करना सही हैμइस विषय के पक्ष-विपक्ष में कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।
बिना ईमानदारी और साहस के आत्मकथा नहीं लिखी जा सकती। गांधी जी की आत्मकथा ‘सत्य के प्रयोग’ पढ़कर पता लगाइए कि उसकी क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ हैं?

Chapter 5 Suryakant Tripathi Nirala Utsah



1- कवि बादल से फुहार, रिमझिम या बरसने के स्थान पर ‘गरजने’ के लिए कहता है, क्यों?

2- कविता का शीर्षक उत्साह क्यों रखा गया है?

3- कविता में बादल किन-किन अर्थों की ओर संकेत करता है?

4- शब्दों का ऐसा प्रयोग जिससे कविता के किसी खास भाव या दृश्य में ध्वन्यात्मक प्रभाव पैदा हो, नाद-सौंदर्य कहलाता है। उत्साह कविता में ऐसे कौन-से शब्द हैं जिनमें नाद-सौंदर्य मौजूद है, छाँटकर लिखें।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- जैसे बादल उमड़-घुमड़कर बारिश करते हैं वैसे ही कवि के अंतर्मन में भी भावों के बादल उमड़-घुमड़कर कविता के रूप में अभिव्यक्त होते हैं। ऐसे ही किसी प्राकृतिक सौंदर्य को देखकर अपने उमड़ते भावों को कविता में उतारिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

बादलों पर अनेक कविताएँ हैं। कुछ कविताओं का संकलन करें और उनका चित्रंकन भी कीजिए। अट नहीं रही है

1- छायावाद की एक खास विशेषता है अंतर्मन के भावों का बाहर की दुनिया से सामंजस्य बिठाना। कविता की किन पंक्तियों को पढ़कर यह धारणा पुष्ट होती है? लिखिए।

2- कवि की आँख फागुन की सुंदरता से क्यों नहीं हट रही है?

3- प्रस्तुत कविता में कवि ने प्रकृति की व्यापकता का वर्णन किन रूपों में किया है?

4- फागुन में ऐसा क्या होता है जो बाकी ऋतुओं से भिन्न होता है?

5- इन कविताओं के आधार पर निराला के काव्य-शिल्प की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- होली के आसपास प्रकृति में जो परिवर्तन दिखाई देते हैं, उन्हें लिखिए।

Chapter 6 Yah Dandurit Muskan

यह दंतुरित मुसकान

यह दंतुरित मुसकान

1- बच्चे की दंतुरित मुसकान का कवि के मन पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?

2- बच्चे की मुसकान और एक बड़े व्यक्ति की मुसकान में क्या अंतर है?

3- कवि ने बच्चे की मुसकान के सौंदर्य को किन-किन बिबों के माध्यम से व्यक्त किया है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) छोड़कर तालाब मेरी झाेंपड़ी में खिल रहे जलजात।
(ख) छू गया तुमसे कि झरने लग पड़े शेफालिका के फूल बाँस था कि बबूल?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- मुसकान और क्रोध भिन्न-भिन्न भाव हैं। इनकी उपस्थिति से बने वातावरण की भिन्नता का चित्रण कीजिए।

6- दंतुरित मुसकान से बच्चे की उम्र का अनुमान लगाइए और तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।

7- बच्चे से कवि की मुलाकात का जो शब्द-चित्र उपस्थित हुआ है उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप जब भी किसी बच्चे से पहली बार मिलें तो उसके हाव-भाव, व्यवहार आदि को सूक्ष्मता से देखिए और उस अनुभव को कविता या अनुच्छेद के रूप में लिखिए।

1- कवि के अनुसार फसल क्या है?
2- कविता में फसल उपजाने के लिए आवश्यक तत्वों की बात कही गई है। वे आवश्यक तत्व कौन-कौन से हैं?
3- फसल को ‘हाथों के स्पर्श की गरिमा’ और ‘महिमा’ कहकर कवि क्या व्यक्त करना चाहता है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) रूपांतर है सूरज की किरणों का सिमटा हुआ संकोच है हवा की थिरकन का!
रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- कवि ने फसल को हजार-हजार खेतों की मि‘ी का गुण-धर्म कहा हैμ
(क) मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को आप किस तरह परिभाषित करेंगे?
(ख) वर्तमान जीवन शैली मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को किस-किस तरह प्रभावित करती है?
(ग) मि‘ी द्वारा अपना गुण-धर्म छोड़ने की स्थिति में क्या किसी भी प्रकार के जीवन की कल्पना की जा सकती है?
(घ) मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को पोषित करने में हमारी क्या भूमिका हो सकती है?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

इलेक्ट्रॉनिक एवं प्रिट मीडिया द्वारा आपने किसानों की स्थिति के बारे में बहुत कुछ सुना, देखा और पढ़ा होगा। एक सुदृढ़ कृषि-व्यवस्था के लिए आप अपने सुझाव देते हुए अखबार के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए। फसलों के उत्पादन में महिलाओं के योगदान को हमारी अर्थव्यवस्था में महत्त्व क्यों नहीं दिया जाता है? इस बारे में कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।

Chapter 7 Chaya Mat Chhoona

छाया मत छूना


1- कवि ने कठिन यथार्थ के पूजन की बात क्यों कही है?

2- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
प्रभुता का शरण-बिब केवल मृगतृष्णा है,
हर चंद्रिका में छिपी एक रात कृष्णा है।

3- ‘छाया’ शब्द यहाँ किस संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त हुआ है? कवि ने उसे छूने के लिए मना क्यों किया है?

4- कविता में विशेषण के प्रयोग से शब्दों के अर्थ में विशेष प्रभाव पड़ता है, जैसे कठिन यथार्थ। कविता में आए ऐसे अन्य उदाहरण छाँटकर लिखिए और यह भी लिखिए कि इससे शब्दों के अर्थ में क्या विशिष्टता पैदा हुई?

5- ‘मृगतृष्णा’ किसे कहते हैं, कविता में इसका प्रयोग किस अर्थ में हुआ है?

6- ‘बीती ताहि बिसार दे आगे की सुधि ले’ यह भाव कविता की किस पंक्ति में झलकता है?

7- कविता में व्यक्त दुख के कारणों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- ‘जीवन में हैं सुरंग सुधियाँ सुहावनी’, से कवि का अभिप्राय जीवन की मधुर स्मृतियों से है। आपने अपने जीवन की कौन-कौन सी स्मृतियाँ संजो रखी हैं?

9- ‘क्या हुआ जो खिला फूल रस-बसंत जाने पर?’ कवि का मानना है कि समय बीत जाने पर भी उपलब्धि मनुष्य को आनंद देती है। क्या आप ऐसा मानते हैं? तर्क सहित लिखिए।


1- कवि ने कठिन यथार्थ के पूजन की बात क्यों कही है?

2- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
प्रभुता का शरण-बिब केवल मृगतृष्णा है,
हर चंद्रिका में छिपी एक रात कृष्णा है।

3- ‘छाया’ शब्द यहाँ किस संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त हुआ है? कवि ने उसे छूने के लिए मना क्यों किया है?

4- कविता में विशेषण के प्रयोग से शब्दों के अर्थ में विशेष प्रभाव पड़ता है, जैसे कठिन यथार्थ। कविता में आए ऐसे अन्य उदाहरण छाँटकर लिखिए और यह भी लिखिए कि इससे शब्दों के अर्थ में क्या विशिष्टता पैदा हुई?

5- ‘मृगतृष्णा’ किसे कहते हैं, कविता में इसका प्रयोग किस अर्थ में हुआ है?

6- ‘बीती ताहि बिसार दे आगे की सुधि ले’ यह भाव कविता की किस पंक्ति में झलकता है?

7- कविता में व्यक्त दुख के कारणों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- ‘जीवन में हैं सुरंग सुधियाँ सुहावनी’, से कवि का अभिप्राय जीवन की मधुर स्मृतियों से है। आपने अपने जीवन की कौन-कौन सी स्मृतियाँ संजो रखी हैं?

9- ‘क्या हुआ जो खिला फूल रस-बसंत जाने पर?’ कवि का मानना है कि समय बीत जाने पर भी उपलब्धि मनुष्य को आनंद देती है। क्या आप ऐसा मानते हैं? तर्क सहित लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप गर्मी की चिलचिलाती धूप में कभी सप् ़ शफ़र करें तो दूर सड़क पर आपको पानी जैसा दिखाई देगा पर पास पहुँचने पर वहाँ कुछ नहीं होता। अपने जीवन में भी कभी-कभी हम सोचते कुछ हैं, दिखता कुछ है लेकिन वास्तविकता कुछ और होती है। आपके जीवन में घटे ऐसे किसी अनुभव को अपने प्रिय मित्र को पत्र लिखकर अभिव्यक्त कीजिए।

कवि गिरिजाकुमार माथुर की ‘पंद्रह अगस्त’ कविता खोजकर पढ़िए और उस पर चर्चा कीजिए।

आप गर्मी की चिलचिलाती धूप में कभी सप् ़ शफ़र करें तो दूर सड़क पर आपको पानी जैसा दिखाई देगा पर पास पहुँचने पर वहाँ कुछ नहीं होता। अपने जीवन में भी कभी-कभी हम सोचते कुछ हैं, दिखता कुछ है लेकिन वास्तविकता कुछ और होती है। आपके जीवन में घटे ऐसे किसी अनुभव को अपने प्रिय मित्र को पत्र लिखकर अभिव्यक्त कीजिए। कवि गिरिजाकुमार माथुर की ‘पंद्रह अगस्त’ कविता खोजकर पढ़िए और उस पर चर्चा कीजिए।

Chapter 8 kanyadan



1- आपके विचार से माँ ने ऐसा क्यों कहा कि लड़की होना पर लड़की जैसी मत दिखाई देना?

2- ‘आग रोटियाँ सेंकने के लिए है जलने के लिए नहीं’
(क) इन पंक्तियों में समाज में स्त्री की किस स्थिति की ओर संकेत किया गया है?
(ख) माँ ने बेटी को सचेत करना क्यों जरूरी समझा?

3- ‘पाठिका थी वह धुँधले प्रकाश की कुछ तुकों और कुछ लयबद्ध पंक्तियों की’ इन पंक्तियों को पढ़कर लड़की की जो छवि आपके सामने उभरकर आ रही है उसे शब्दबद्ध कीजिए।

4- माँ को अपनी बेटी ‘अंतिम पूँजी’ क्यों लग रही थी?

5- माँ ने बेटी को क्या-क्या सीख दी?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- आपकी दृष्टि में कन्या के साथ दान की बात करना कहाँ तक उचित है?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

‘स्त्री को सौंदर्य का प्रतिमान बना दिया जाना ही उसका बंधन बन जाता है’μइस विषय पर कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।

यहाँ अफगानी कवयित्री मीना किश्वर कमाल की कविता की कुछ पंक्तियाँ दी जा रही हैं। क्या आपको कन्यादान कविता से इसका कोई संबंध दिखाई देता है?

Chapter 9 Sangatkar



1- संगतकार के माध्यम से कवि किस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों की ओर संकेत करना चाह रहा है?

2- संगतकार जैसे व्यक्ति संगीत के अलावा और किन-किन क्षेत्रें में दिखाई देते हैं?

3- संगतकार किन-किन रूपों में मुख्य गायक-गायिकाओं की मदद करते हैं?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ और उसकी आवाज में जो एक हिचक साप़् शफ़ सुनाई देती है या अपने स्वर को ऊँचा न उठाने की जो कोशिश है उसे विफलता नहीं उसकी मनुष्यता समझा जाना चाहिए।

5- किसी भी क्षेत्र में प्रसिद्धि पाने वाले लोगों को अनेक लोग तरह-तरह से अपना योगदान देते हैं। कोई एक उदाहरण देकर इस कथन पर अपने विचार लिखिए।

6- कभी-कभी तारसप्तक की ऊँचाई पर पहुँचकर मुख्य गायक का स्वर बिखरता नजर आता है उस समय संगतकार उसे बिखरने से बचा लेता है। इस कथन के आलोक में संगतकार की विशेष भूमिका को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

7- सफलता के चरम शिखर पर पहुँचने के दौरान यदि व्यक्ति लड़खड़ाता है तब उसे सहयोगी किस तरह सँभालते हैं?\

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- कल्पना कीजिए कि आपको किसी संगीत या नृत्य समारोह का कार्यक्रम प्रस्तुत करना है लेकिन आपके सहयोगी कलाकार किसी कारणवश नहीं पहुँच पाएँμ

(क) ऐसे में अपनी स्थिति का वर्णन कीजिए।
(ख) ऐसी परिस्थिति का आप कैसे सामना करेंगे?

9- आपके विद्यालय में मनाए जाने वाले सांस्कृतिक समारोह में मंच के पीछे काम करने वाले सहयोगियों की भूमिका पर एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।

10- किसी भी क्षेत्र में संगतकार की पंक्ति वाले लोग प्रतिभावान होते हुए भी मुख्य या शीर्ष स्थान पर क्यों नहीं पहुँच पाते होंगे?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप पि़् शफ़ल्में तो देखते ही होंगे। अपनी पसंद की किसी एक पि़्शफ़ल्म के आधार पर लिखिए कि उस पि़् फ़ल्म की सफलता में अभिनय करने वाल कलाकारों के अतिरिक्त और किन-किन लोगों का योेेगदान रहा।

आपके विद्यालय में किसी प्रसिद्ध गायिका की गीत प्रस्तुति का आयोजन हैμ
(क) इस संबंध पर सूचना प‘ के लिए एक नोटिस तैयार कीजिए।
(ख) गायिका व उसके संगतकारों का परिचय देने के लिए आलेख (स्क्रिप्ट) तैयार कीजिए।

Chapter 10 Neta Ji ka Chasma

नेताजी का चश्मा


1- सेनानी न होते हुए भी चश्मेवाले को लोग कैप्टन क्यों कहते थे?

2- हालदार साहब ने ड्राइवर को पहले चौराहे पर गाड़ी रोकने के लिए मना किया था लेकिन बाद में तुरंत रोकने को कहाμ
(क) हालदार साहब पहले मायूस क्यों हो गए थे?
(ख) मूर्ति पर सरकंडे का चश्मा क्या उम्मीद जगाता है?
(ग) हालदार साहब इतनी-सी बात पर भावुक क्यों हो उठे?

3- आशय स्पष्ट कीजिएμ

फ्बार-बार सोचते, क्या होगा उस कौम का जो अपने देश की खातिर घर-गृहस्थी-जवानी-जिदगी सब कुछ होम देनेवालों पर भी हँसती है और अपने लिए बिकने के मौके ढूँढ़ती है।य्

4- पानवाले का एक रेखाचित्र प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

5- फ्वो लँगड़ा क्या जाएगा प् ़ शफ़ौज में। पागल है पागल!य् कैप्टन के प्रति पानवाले की इस टिप्पणी पर अपनी प्रतिक्रिया लिखिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Psychology Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Psychology Senior Secondary


Psychology is relevant to all walks of life. Everyone learns some psychology, if not in school, through one’s own experience and uses it without realizing it consciously. Prominent applications in psychology include areas of human development and adjustment, development of skills, communication, education, social change, stress etc. As mentioned earlier, psychology extends to all areas of human existence.

While imparting knowledge of the above to a student of Senior Secondary, it is our endeavor to acquaint him/her with his/her own life concerns and bring home on how psychology has bearing in such issues. It will also be important that while discussing modern psychological thought and research, the indigenous ideas are integrated into a collective perspective.


  •  To make students understand the major areas of life concern (e.g. development, education., work, hearth, society etc.)

  •  To make students understand the relationship between the life concern and psychological perspective.

  •  To make student apply the knowledge of psychology in the solution of problems related to individual life concerns.

  •  To make students apply the knowledge to psychology for personal and social development.


Module Marks
Foundations of behaviour – I

Foundations of behaviour – II

Human Development


Group Process

Work & Stress







Total 100

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Painting Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Painting Senior Secondary


Painting is a form of art. It is a powerful way of self-expression providing a sense of fulfillment and achievement. This course is aimed at providing with necessary inputs of practical work and skill to the learner’s familiarity of the theory of art through ages. This will further help in aesthetic development, ability to appreciate and discover beauty of life and integrate it into one’s own personality. Thus, art will make us more sensitive to our Cultural Heritage, environment and develop a creative attitude in day-to-day activities.


The objectives of this course are to:

  •  develop knowledge and understanding of visual art;
  •  develop skill, ability and aesthetic attitude;
  •  acquaint about the development of art and various styles of art expression and their salient features;
  •  develop understanding about the visual aspects of composition, division of space, rhythm, texture, tonal gradation and expressive value of line in a learner;
  •  to work with harmony and contrast of colour, having various drawing and painting materials such as pencils, pastels, water and oil colour, ink etc.


This course in painting for the senior secondary level has been divided into three compulsory modules namely :

  •  History and Appreciation of Indian art.
  •  History and Appreciation of Indian painting and Sculptures
  •  Folk Paintings It also includes one practical paper having three parts.
  •  Object Drawing
  •  Painting and Composition
  •  Folk Art as MotifCOURSE DESCRIPTION

Module – 1 : History and Appreciation of Indian art.

(From 2500 B.C. to 16th Century A.D.)

Approach :

The art objects, belonged to Indus Valley Civilization, are the only available earliest evidence of great tradition of India. The nature form of these art works help us to imagine that tradition of Indian art must have begun long before 2500 B.C. Changing condition of politics and religions kept on motivating Indian art through the ages from 4th C. B.C. to 16th C.

A.D., leaving a missing link for approximately 1000 yrs from post Indus Valley civilization to Mauryan period. Indian Art under the patronage of Hindu, Muslim, Buddhist and Jain rulers, flourished till 16th C. A.D. to face a new era of art movement after the Mughals became the rulers of India.

Unit 1.1     Art of Indus Valley Civilization

                (Harappan and Mohen-jo-daro 2500 B.C. to 1750 B.C.).
Brief introduction and appreciation supported with drawing, maps, and pictures of the following art objects:



  • Mother Goddess
National Museum, Delhi
  • Seal with Bull Design
National Museum, Delhi
  • Painted Pottery
National Museum, Delhi
  • Jewellery (necklace)
National Museum, Delhi

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Computer Science Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Computer Science Senior Secondary

Lesson 1

Anatomy of a Digital Computer

1.1 Introduction

1.2 Objectives

1.3 Functions and Components of a Computer
1.3.1 How the CPU and Memory work

1.4 Input devices
1.4.1 Keyboard
1.4.2 Magnetic Ink character Recognition (MICR)
1.4.3 Optical mark recognition (OMR)
1.4.4 Bar Code Reader
1.4.5 Digitigng Tablet
1.4.6 Scanners
1.4.7 Mouse
1.4.8 Light Pen
1.4.9 Speech input devices

1.5 Memory Unit
1.5.1 Capacity of Primary Memory

1.6 Secondary Storage
1.6.1 Magnetic Tape
1.6.2 Magnetic Disk
1.6.3 Floppy Disk
1.6.4 Optical Disk

1.7 Output Device
1.7.1 Display Screen
1.7.2 Printer
1.7.3 Plotter
1.7.4 Sound Cards & Speaker
1.7.5 3 D - Audio

1.8 What do you have learnt

1.9 Terminal Questions

1.10 Feedback to In –Text Question

Lesson - 2

Data Processing Concept

2.1 Introduction.

2.2 Objectives

2.3 Data

2.4 Processing

2.5 Information

2.6 Data Processing Activities

2.7 The Data Processing Cycle

2.8 Computer Processing Operation

2.9 Data Processing Systems

2.10 Data Organisation

2.11 Variable and Fixed Length Records

2.12 Logical Versus Physical Records

2.13 What you have learnt

2.14 Terminal Questions

2.15 Feedback to In- Text Question

Lesson – 3

Computer Software

3.1 Introduction.

3.2 Objectives

3.3 Computer Language

3.4 Type of High –Level Language

3.5 Compilers and Interpreters

3.6 What is Software

3.7 Type of software
3.7.1 System software
3.7.2 Application Software

3.8 What do you have learn

3.9 Terminal Questions

3.10 Feedback to In-Text Question

Lesson – 4

Operating System

4.1 Introduction.

4.2 Objectives

4.3 Main features of Windows 98
4.3.1 Using the Mouse

4.4 The Symbol for Menu Commands
4.4.1 Desktop
4.4.2 Desktop Icon

4.5 Start Button and Taskbar
4.5.1 Programs Submenu
4.5.2 Favorites Submenu
4.5.3 Documents Submenu
4.5.4 Setting
4.5.5 Find
4.5.6 Help
4.5.7 Run
4.5.8 Shut Down

4.6 Window Explorer

4.7 Managing Files, Folders and Windows
4.7.1 Shortcuts
4.7.2 Windows Most Common

4.8 Sharing Folders and Printers

4.9 MS-DOS – Based Program

4.10 What You Have Learn

4.11 Terminal Question

4.12 Feedback to In-Text Question

Lesson – 5

Data Communication and Networking

1.1 Introduction

1.2 Objectives

1.3 Data Communication

1.4 Communication Protocol

1.5 Data Transmission Modes

1.6 Types of Communication Services

1.7 Communication Media

1.8 Computer Network

1.9 Types of Networks

1.10 Network Protocols

1.11 Network Architecture

1.12 Important terms used in Networking

1.13 What you have learn

1.14 Terminal Question

1.15 Feedback to In-Text Question

Lesson – 6

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of History Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of History Senior Secondary

Total Reading Time : 240 Hours

Max. Marks 100

Number of Papers          One


History is the scientific study of human beings and the evolution of human society in point of time and in different ages. As such it occupies all important place in the school curriculum. It is, therefore, taught as a general subject forming a part of Social Science both at the Middle and the Secondary Stages. At the Middle Stage, entire Indian History is covered, while at the Secondary Stage, the land marks in the development of human society are taught.

At the Senior Secondary Stage, History becomes an elective subject. Its main thrust is to bridge the gap between the presence of change-oriented technologies of today and the continuity of our cultural tradition so as to ensure that the coming generation will represent the fine synthesis between change and continuity. It is, therefore, deemed essential to take up the entire Indian History from the Ancient to the Modem period for Senior Secondary Stage.

The rationale for taking up the teaching of History at this stage is :

1. to promote an understanding of the major stages in the evolution of Indian society through the ages.

2. to develop an understanding of the historical forces responsible for the evolution of Indian society in the Ancient, Medieval and Modem times.

3. to develop an appreciation of
(i) the diverse cultural and social systems of the people living indifferent parts of the country.
(ii) the richness, variety and composite nature of Indian culture.
(iii) the growth of various components of Indian culture, legitimate pride in the achievement of Indian people in. different parts of the country.
(iv) the process of change which evolved as a result of interaction with other cultures.

4. to identify the fissiparous trends which hampered the growth of the Indian nation in different periods.

5. to recognize that the Indian culture has not remained and developed in isolation, rather was a result of a synthesis of different cultures and to understand the contemporary process of change, continuity and development.

6. to remove from the minds of the younger generation prejudices and complexestransmitted from the biased interpretation of History, the social environment and the accident of birth.

7. to develop an appreciation of the contribution made by the people from all parts of the country in the making of the national heritage.

8. to foster proper understanding of the contemporary problems of India in historical perspective so as to develop an enlightened citizenship for active participation in the establishment of a just social order.

9. to inculcate scientific temper and objectivity to the study of India’s past in order to relate to the present.

The study of History at this stage is intended to initiate and introduce students to the ‘Elements of Historical Methodology’ as also how the historian thinks and works. For this, he should be acquainted with the various types of sources which form the basis of history and develop the competence to evaluate the reliability of the sources.


Keeping in view the implications of the National Policy on Education (May, 1986, PP. 3,4) providing access to education of a comparable quality for all students, irrespective of caste, creed, location or sex and the Programmes of Action (August, 1986, P. 144) emphasizing the immediate need for introducing the curricular change in the content of history essential to nurture national identity, protect, preserve and promote our common cultural heritage, the approach to the teaching-learning of History at the +2 Stage (Senior Secondary) will highlight the following:

1. The new focus will be on the socio-economic and cultural development of man in society. The political developments and dynastic treatment, which has been hitherto the main thrust in the teaching-learning process, will no longer be given undue emphasis.

2. The emphasis at this stage will be laid on the development of a composite culture and national integration by highlighting the contribution of the people from all parts of the country through the ages. The development of the components of composite culture has assumed different forms in different periods of Indian History. In Ancient and Medieval India, the cultural identity and unity formed the main basis whereas in Modern India, the political unification during the British rule constituted the main plank of the composite culture which was strengthened further with the integration of the Princely States with the India Union.

3. It is necessary to highlight the role, the suffering and sacrifice of the people in the struggle for freedom against the British rule irrespective of religion and region.

4. Other important areas include the removal of social evils and emancipation of women in modern India.

The study of History at this stage will not remain confined to the reading material alone. The whole process will be activity oriented with more emphasis on the self learning activities of the learners. To create further interest in the study of History frequent use will be made of audio-visual aids (T.V.-CCTV), maps, charts, time line, genealogical tables and the learner will be required to study historical geography of India and undertake field trips wherever feasible. The development of the entire process of learning History will take place with the close co-operation and active participation of the learner during the contact programmes.

Each module of the course (Unit and Sub-Unit) has been divided into two parts-the General Foundation Units and the Certification Units. The General Foundation Units provide a comprehensive view of Indian History in chronological sequence for proper understanding of the main events of Indian History in self-contained units. The Certification Units are to be studied in reasonable depth including interpretation critical thinIdng and balanced views for eItemal examination at the Senior Secondary level.


NCERT Science Question Paper (Class-9)

NCERT  Science Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 Matter In Our Surroundings

Question 1. Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, colddrink, smell of perfume.

Question 2. Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.

Question 3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?

Question 4. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?

Question 5. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

Question 6. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characterisitcs of states of matter. (b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

Question 7. Give reasons
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. (c) A wooden table should be called a solid. (d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert.

Question 8. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.

Question 9. Convert the following temperature to celsius scale: a. 300 K b. 573 K.

Question 10. What is the physical state of water at: a. 250ºC b. 100ºC ? 3. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state? 4. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

Question 11. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

Question 12. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Question 13. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it? 4. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Question 14. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Question 15 1. Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale.

(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K.
Question 16. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.

Question 17. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

Question 18. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles— water, sugar, oxygen.

Question 19. What is the physical state of water at—

(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C ?

Question 20. Give two reasons to justify—

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Question 21. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Question 22. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

Question 23. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 1. What is meant by a pure substance?

Question 2. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Question 3. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

Question 4. How are sol solution and suspension different from each other?

Question 5. To make a saturated solution 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Question 6. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25ºC) which are miscible with each other?

Question 7. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd
(ii) salt from sea-water
(iii) camphor from salt.

Question 8. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

Question 9. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

  • cutting of trees

  • melting of butter in a pan

  • rusting of almirah

  • boiling of water to form steam

  • passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases

  • dissolving common salt in water

  • making a fruit salad with raw fruits and

  • burning of paper and wood.

Question 10. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures. NCERT Solutions Intext Questions Page no.

Question 11. Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?

(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Question 12. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Question 13. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution) .

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Question 14. Explain the following giving examples.

(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension

Question 15. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Question 16. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Question 17. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?

(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.

Question 18. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water.

Question 19. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.

Question 20. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood

Question 21. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Quetion 1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon = dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that theseobservations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water

Quetion 2. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

Quetion 3. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass?

Quetion 4. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?

Quetion 5. Define the atomic mass unit.

Quetion 6. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?

Quetion 7.Following formulae:

(i) Al2(SO4)3
(ii) CaCl2
(iii) K2SO4
(iv) KNO3
(v) CaCO3.

Question 8. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Question 9. How many atoms are present in a

(i) H2S molecule and
(ii) PO4 3– ion?

Question 10. Write down the formulae of

(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium suphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide

Question 11. Write down the names of compounds represented by the

Question 12. Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.

Question 13. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Question 14. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon?

Question 15. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of iron (given, atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Question 16. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.

Question 17 . When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

Question 18. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

Question 19 Write the chemical formulae of the following.

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Question 20. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds.

(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Question 21. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.

(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HN O3

Question 22. What is the mass of—

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?

Question 23. Convert into mole.

(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

Question 24. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Question 25. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.

Question 26. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide. (Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u)

Chapter 4 Structure of The Atom

Question 1. What are canal rays?

Question 2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Question 3. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Question 4. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Question 5. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Question 6. What do you think would be the observation if the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?  

Question 7. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Question 8. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?

Question 9. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Question 10. For the symbol H,D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.

Question 12. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.

Question 13. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Question 14. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Question 15. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Question 16. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Question 17. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.

Question 18. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.

Question 19. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Question 20. Explain with examples

(i) Atomic number
(ii) Mass number
(iii) Isotopes
(iv) Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Question 21. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Question 22. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79 35 Br (49.7%) and 81 35 Br (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Question 23. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 16 8 X and 18 8 X in the sample?

Question 24. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Question 25. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X Y Protons = 6 6 Neutrons = 6 8 Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Question 26. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1 2000 times that of proton.
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine. Put tick () against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 27. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Question 28. Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.

Question 29. Number of valence electrons in Cl– ion are:

(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Question 30. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8
(b) 8,2,1
(c) 2,1,8
(d) 2,8,1.

Question 31. Complete the following table.

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Question 1. Who discovered cells, and how?

Question 2. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

Question 3. How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

Question 4. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?  

Question 5. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Question 6.
Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?

Question 7. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?

Question 8. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

Question 9. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

Question 10. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.

Question 12. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

Question 13.
What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?

Question 14. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

Question 15. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

Question 16. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

Question 17. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

Question 18.
What is osmosis?

Question 19. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,

(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.

Chapter 7 Diversity In Living Organisms

Question 1. Why do we classify organisms?

Question 2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in lifeforms around you

Question 3. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?

(a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why?

Question 4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?

Question 5. On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?

Question 6. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?

Question 7. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?

Question 8. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?

Question 9. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is singlecelled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?

Question 10. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?

Question 11. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?

Question 12. How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?

Question 13. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?

Question 14. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?

Question 15. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?

Question 16. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?

Question 17. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group?

Question 18. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?

Question 19. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?

Question 20. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.

Question 21. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?

Question 22. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals?

Question 23. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.

Chapter 8 Motion

Question 1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with an example.

Question 2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds?

Question 3. Which of the following is true for displacement?

(a) It cannot be zero.
(b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

Question 4. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Question 5. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?

Question 6. What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Question 7. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

Question 5. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of

Question 8. When will you say a body is in

(i) uniform acceleration?
(ii) nonuniform acceleration?

Question 9. A bus decreases its speed from 80 km h–1 to 60 km h–1 in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

Question 10. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed 40 km h–1 in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration.

Question 11. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

Question 12. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 13. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speedtime graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 14. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time graph?

Question 15. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find

(a) The speed acquired,
(b) The distance travelled

Question 16. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h–1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of – 0.5 m s-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

Question 17. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cm s-2. What will be its velocity 3 s after the start?

Question 18. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m s-2. What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?

Question 19. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 m s-1. If the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 10 m s–2 in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?

Question 20. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 s?

Question 21. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 50 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging

(a) from A to B and
(b) from A to C?

Question 22. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20 km h–1. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 40 km h–1. What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Question 23. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0 m s–2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this time?

Question 24. A driver of a car travelling at 52 km h–1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 km h–1 in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Sociology Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Sociology Senior Secondary



After studying up to the Secondary level, a student starts developing some understanding of the nature and character of the society he lives in.

Sociology explores all aspects of social relationships, and it helps to understand why human beings create the societies they inhibit and how they behave with other individuals and groups in which they live. Sociology is considered as another of all Social Sciences because it studies the economic, political, anthropological historical, geographical and psychological dimensions of society. Sociology, however, is primarily concerned with the diversity of human relations particularly along the lines of social class, race, ethnicity, gender and age etc.

Ignorance about society is the root cause of all social evils. The knowledge, obtained by scientific methods, about society can contribute to the development of a good society. August Comte, father of Sociology, has said that man would become the master of his social destiny as soon as he develops a science of society.

Change is continuous and permanent. The changes occurring today in the world make Sociology an extremely important subject to study. This course of Sociology will make students familiar with processes of change and development in general and with reference to Indian society in particular. The learner, as a student and citizen, needs to be exposed to the comprehension of the reality and the realization of the predicament.


This course has the following objectives:

  • To familiarize the learner with the basic concepts in Sociology.

  • To make them familiar with various social institutions and social divisions in society.

  • To make them familiar with the process of change and development in society in general and with reference to Indian society in particular.

  • To familiarize them with different dimensions of Indian Society.

  • To enable the learner to look at social realities objectively.

  • Finally to inculcate among students ability to perceive social realities scientifically.

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Accountancy Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Accountancy Senior Secondary



Accountancy is an important language of business. Its knowledge has become indispensable for recording and analysing business transactions, interpreting the business results thereof and initiating future action.

The highlights of this course include:

a) the knowledge of principles and practices of financial accounting;
b) the preparation of financial statements of Trading and Non-Trading Organisations.
c) the detailed knowledge of Accounting Vouchers prepared by business concerns;
d) the promotion of knowledge about Savings A/c, Cash Book, Pass Book, etc.
e) the provision of elementary knowledge of Computers in Accounting (to be introduced later on)
The modules one to seven (Core Modules) have been considered essential for all learners to study. However, the learners are expected to opt for any one module out of two optional modules depending on his/her interests.


This course aims at enabling the learners to:
develop skills of recording business transactions, maintaining accounts and interpreting the results thereof

  • develop skills to prepare Accounting Vouchers to increase competence for employment.
  • join higher stream of accounting education.
  • join professional Courses in Accounting Stream.


(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Political Science Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Political Science Senior Secondary



  • Sphere of Politics: Power and Authority Freedom and Justice
  • Nation, State and the Government
  • The Nation-State and Globalisation of Politics.


  • The Making of the Constitution: The Preamble
  • Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties
  • Federalism and Centre-State Relation
  • Emergency Provisions
  • Students Assignments


  • The President and Governors

The Council of Ministers:

  • The Prime Minister and The Chief Minister
  • The Parliament of India
  • The State Legislature
  • Structure and Jurisdiction of Indian Judiciary
  • Judicial Review and Protection of Fundamental Rights
  • Judicial Activism


  • Universal Adult Franchise
  • Political Parties and Pressure Groups
  • Role of Socio-Political Movements


  • Administrative System: Centre, State and District Level· Parliamentary Control: The Parliamentary Committees
  • Comptroller and Auditor General
  • Public Grievances and Redressal Machinery

Students Assignments
Political Science Curriculum


  • Urban Local Bodies
  • Panchayati Raj Institutions
  • Non-Government Organisations

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Geography Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Geography Senior Secondary



The discipline of Geography promotes systematic studies of interaction between man and environment. The studies are undertaken on both the micro and macro levels. These studies at global, regional and local levels are taken up within the spatial and temporal frame work.

The contents of Geography become highly fascinating even to the beginner. Man has a reason to feel excited over the fact that his is a living planet pulsating with life and constant change of every possible description. As far as his knowledge goes this is the only celestial body of its kind inhabited with intelligent life which he can think of. Interplay between man an environment being the focal point of geographic study, its contents have become very exciting because of man’s ingenuity and ability to adapt himself to the environmental variations spread over time and space. Since man and environment are equally dynamic, their interrelationship has been growing and becoming more and more complex day by day. A student of Geography is bound to be thrilled by the new insight into the exciting partnership between two.

Since Geography deals with both man and environment, it acts as a natural bridge between humanities and sciences. The former includes the contents from economics, history, political science, sociology, anthropology and commerce. The latter include earth sciences such as geophysics, geology, geomorphology, oceanography, climatology and meteorology. Astronomy and space sciences also provide a meaningful back drop. It is against this broad perspective that the course in Geography has been drawn up for the Senior Secondary Stage. It is hoped that it would be dealt with accordingly. Previously, the courses of study was divided in to two categories i.e. foundation and certification units. In the revised syllabus, all the lessons are compulsory and questions will be asked from each lessons according to the weightages of marks assigned to each module.

To the extent possible, the practicals should be dovetailed to the theoretical portions. The theoretical knowledge can be better assimilated and reinforced through its practical application. Practical problems can be quickly grasped only through the mastery over theory and basic principles. Thus theory and practicals must be seen in their complementary and reinforcing role instead of dealing with them in compartments in a routine or mechanical fashion.


The main objectives of this course are as follows:

  • To provide spatial (i.e. areal and locational) and temporal (i.e. time) dimensions to the patterns of interactions between man and environment for their proper appreciation.

  • To help in appreciating different and changing social perceptions of environments as seen by different groups of people from place to place and by the same people from time to time.

  • To help in understanding that man everywhere tries to make the best possible use of natural resources commensurate with his social and technological level of development.

  • To help in realizing that man must use his environment and natural resource base on a continuing basis avoiding their destruction and westage.

  • To help in understanding that the study of Geography of India should lead to emotional integration of her diverse people and removal of regional imbalances in its economic growth and developments.

  • To help in appreciating the spirit and structure of Geography as discipline.


NCERT Social Science Question Paper (Class-9)

NCERT Social Science Question Paper (Class-9)

(Political Science) Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 1: Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?

(a) Struggle by the people
(b) Invasion by foreign countries
(c) End of colonialism
(d) People’s desire for freedom

Question 2: Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?

(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship between different countries has become more democraticever before.
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.

Question 3: Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence: Democracy in the international organisations requires that …

(a) The rich countries should have a greater say.
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population.
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.

Question 4: Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries anpath democracy has taken in that country.

Question 6: Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown bmilitary?

Question 7: Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.

(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with more respect and exercise more power.
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be heard with equal respect, because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organisations.

Question 8: Here are three opinions heard in a television debate on the struggle for democracy inNepal. Which of these do you agree with and why?

Guest 1: India is a democracy. Therefore, the Indian government must support thpeople of Nepal who are struggling against monarchy and for democracy.
Guest 2: That is a dangerous argument. We would be in the same position as the USwas in Iraq. Remember, no outside force can promote democracy.
Guest 3: But why should we bother about the internal affairs of another countryWe should be worried about our business interests there, not about democracy.

Question 9: In an imaginary country called Happyland, the people overthrew the foreign ruler and brought back the old royal family. They said: “After all their ancestors were our kings before foreigners started ruling us. It is good that we have one strong ruler, who can help us become rich and powerful”. When someone talked about democracy the wise men said it is a foreign idea. Their struggle was to throw the foreigners and their ideas out of the country. When someone demanded freedom for the media, the elders thought that too much criticism of the ruler would not help them improve their living standards. “After all, the king is so kind and interested in the welfare of all the subjects. Why create problems for him. Don’t we all want to be happy?” After reading the above passage, Chaman, Champa and Chandru made the following observations. Chaman: Happyland is a democratic country because people were able to throw out the foreign rulers and bring back the king. Champa: Happyland is not a democratic country because people cannot criticise the ruler. The king may be nice and may provide economic prosperity, but a king cannot

give a democratic rule. Chandru: What people need is happiness. So they are willing to allow their new ruler to take decisions for them. If people are happy it must be a democracy. What is your opinion about each of these statements? What do you think about the form of government in this country?

(Political Science) Chapter 2 What is Democracy Why Democracy

Question 1: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how woyou classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sagainst each of these.

(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not havright to vote
(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty yea(c) Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections
(d) Country D:
There is no independent election commission

Question 2: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army
(b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary
(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking permission from its neighbouring country.
(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.

Question 3: Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?

(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Question 4: Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.

(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.
(b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large scale rigging was reported.
(c) Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Question 5: Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?

(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Question 6: There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision fordrinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing thegovernment to respond to their need. Which of these is not a democratic method?

(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.
(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
(c) Organising public meetings against government’s policies.
(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Question 7: Write a response to the following arguments against democracy.

(a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.
(b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.
(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.

Question 8: Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?

(a) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. Inour family children marry where the parents tell them to.
(b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions inthe classroom.
(c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to thelaw.

Question 9:  Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it ademocracy. Give reasons to support your decision.

(a) All the citizens of the country have right to vote Elections are held regularly.
(b) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions forgiven loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education andhealth.
(c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in onelanguage, the language spoken by 52 percent people of the country.
(d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
(e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.

Question 10: In 2004 a report published in USA pointed to the increasing inequalities in thatcountry. Inequalities in income reflected in the participation of people in democracy...

(Political Science) Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Question 1: Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.

(a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.
(b) Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.
(c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.
(d) Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Question 2: Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

(a) Between South Africa and its neighbours
(b) Between men and women
(c) Between the white majority and the black minority
(d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Question 3: Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?

(a) Powers of the head of the state
(b) Name of the head of the state
(c) Powers of the legislature
(d) Name of the country

Question 4: Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:

Question 5: Read again the extracts from Nehru's speech “Tryst with Destiny” and answer the following:

(a) Why did Nehru use the expression “not wholly or in full measure” in the first sentence?
(b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?
(c) “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who was he referring to?

Question 6: Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Question 7: A friend from Nepal has written you a letter describing the political situation there. Many political parties are opposing the rule of the king. Some of them say that the existing constitution given by the monarch can be amended to allow more powers to elected representatives. Others are demanding a new Constituent Assembly to write a republican constitution. Reply to your friend giving your opinions on the subject.

Question 8: Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?

(a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers. We received training to work with representative legislative institutions under the British rule.
(b) Freedom struggle challenged the colonial exploitation and denial of different freedoms to Indians. Free India could not be anything but democratic.
(c) We are lucky to have leaders who had democratic convictions. The denial of democracy in several other newly independent countries shows the important role of these leaders.

Question 9: Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. ‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile both physically and emotionally, pitiably incapable of self-defence. They are destined thus by God to remain in male protection − of father, husband and son − all their lives. Women should, therefore, not despair, but feel obliged that they can dedicate themselves to the service of men’. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our constitution? Or does this go against the constitutional values?

Question 10: Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.

(a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
(b) Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
(c) Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.
(d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

(Political Science) Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Question 1: Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
(b) People select the representative of their choice in an election.
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.

Question 2: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.

Question 3: Match the following:

Question 4: List all the different election related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below: releasing election manifestos; counting of votes; making of voters’ list; election campaign; declaration of election results; casting of votes; ordering of re-poll; announcing election schedule; filing nomination.

Question 5: Surekha is an officer in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of election:

(a) Election campaign
(b) Polling day
(c) Counting day

Question 6: The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidateswho won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of thesecommunities in the population of the US. Based on this, would you suggest a systemof reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no,why not.

Question 7: Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.

(a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.
(b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.
(c) It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.
(d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.

Question 8: Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?

Question 9: Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

(a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than five lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favour of
(b) Just before elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minisiter, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of India origin.
(c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions.

Question 10: Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?

(a) Following the announcement of elections, the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.
(b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.
(c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain name of 20 lakh fake voters.
(d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties.

Question 11: Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He came the next day and repeated what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?

(a) Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote?
(b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.
(c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections.

(Political Science) Chapter 5 Working of Institutions

Question 1: If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.

Question 2: Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

(a) District Collector
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Home Minister
(d) Director General of Police

Question 3: Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?

(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.
(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution.
(c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive.
(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated

Question 4: Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Question 5: Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released:

Question 6: Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one thatexercises the powers on each of the following matters.

(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigationetc. and different welfare activities for the citizens.
(b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stockexchange.
(c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments.
(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.

Question 7: Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.

(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.
(c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.

Question 8: Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?

Question 9: A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you. Which one would you choose and why?

Question 10: After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?

(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.
(b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.
(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.

(Political Science) Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

Question 1: Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Question 2: Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Question 3: Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate livelihood
(c) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to privacy

Question 4: Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion
(b) Right to life
(c) Abolition of untouchability
(d) Ban on bonded labour

Question 5: Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.

Question 6: Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.
(c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Question 7: Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.

Question 8: When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her. "You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o Α. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao." She did not agree. She said "If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?" In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why?

Question 9:  Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

Question 10: Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pilgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow, give an example that shows the linkage.

(Geography) Chapter 1 India - Size and Location

Problem 1. Choose the right

(i) Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura

Solution : (b)

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is

(a) 97° 25′ E
(b) 68° 7′ E
(c) 77° 6′ E
(d) 82° 32′ E

Solution : (a)

(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontier with

(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Myanmar

Solution : (c)

(iv) If you intended to visit Kavaratti during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India will you be going to?

(a) Puducherry
(b) Lalcshadweep
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

Solution : (b)

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.

(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Tajikistan
(d) Nepal

Solution : (b)

Problem 2. the followings briefly.

(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea.

(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.

Solution : Russia, Canada, USA. China, Australia and Brazil are the countries that are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its South-East?

Solution : Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the South-East of India.

(iv) Which island countries are our Southern neighbours?

Solution :
Sri Lanka and Maldives are the two island countries that are the Southern neighbours of India.

Problem 3. The Sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the West but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?

Solution :
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours, but the watches show the same time because the time along the Standard Meridian of India (82 0 30′ E) passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is taken as the standard time for the whole country. Because the same standard time for the whole country has been adopted, the watches show the same time in Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat and in all parts of the country.

Problem 4. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?

Solution :
The Indian landmass has a central location between East and West Asia. India is a southward extension of the Asian continent. The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West to the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India. The Deccan peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the Western coast and South-East and East Asia from the Eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has. Thus, India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean Justifies the naming of an ocean after it. Map Skills

Problem 1. Identify the following with the help of map reading.

(i) The island groups of India lying in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(ii) The countries constituting the Indian Sub-continent.

Solution : Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Bangladesh.

(iii) The states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.

Solution :
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Paschim Banga, Tripura and Mizoram.

(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.

Solution :
37° 6’N

(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.

Solution :
8° 4’N

(vi) The eastern and the Westernmost longitude in degrees.

Solution :
68° 7’E and 97° 25’E

(vii) The place situated on the three seas.

Solution :

(viii) The straight separating Sri Lanka from India.

Solution :
Palk Strait

(ix) The Union Territories of India.

Solution :
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Puducherry and Delhi. Project/Activity

(i) Find out the longitudinal and latitudinal extent of your state.

Solution :
is given below My state is Uttar Pradesh longitudinally it extends from 77°4’E to 84°39’E. Latitudinally it extends from about 30 0 20’N to about 23°53’N.

(ii) Collect information about the ‘Silk Route Also find out the new developments which are improving communication routes in the regions of the high altitude.

Solution :
(a) Do it yourself. It is given in your History book. Some information is given below

The Silk Road or Silk Route refers to a historical network of interlinking trade routes across the Afro-Eurasian landmass that connected East, South. and Western Asia with the Mediterranean and European world, as well as parts of North and East Africa.

The land routes were supplemented by sea routes, which extended from the Red Sea to coastal India, China and South-East Asia.

Extending 4,000 miles (6,500 km), the Silk Road gets its name from the lucrative Chinese silk trade along it. which began during the Han Dynasty (206 BCE – 220 CE). The central Asian sections of the trade routes were expanded around 114 BCE by the Han dynasty largely through the missions and explorations of Zhang Qian, but earlier trade routes across the continents already existed.

In the late Middle Ages. transcontinental trade over the land routes of the Silk Road declined as sea trade increased. In recent years, both the maritime and overland Silk Routes are again being used, often closely following the ancient routes.

(b) Communication routes in regions of high altitude are now-a-days through helicopter (for closer distances) and through high altitude railways like the Ouinghai railway in China linking Lhasa (capital of Tibet) with the rest of the world. More information can be found on this railway from the internet.

(Geography) Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below.

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides in referred to as

(a) coast
(b) island
(c) peninsula
(d) None of these

Solution : (c)

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as

(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvanchal
(d) None of these

Solution : (c)

(iii) The Western coastal strip, South of Goa is referred to as

(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar

Solution : (c)

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

(a) AnaMudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi

Solution : (c)

Problem 2. the following Questions briefly

(i) What are tectonic plates ?

Solution : The convectional currents below the Earth’s crust split the crust into a number of pieces. These pieces are called tectonic plates. e.g., Eurasia plate, Indo Australian plate etc.

(ii) Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland ?

Solution : The Gondwana land included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single land mass.

(iii) What is the Bhabar?

Solution :
Bhabar is a narrow belt of land about 8 to 16 km wide and covered with pebbles deposited by the rivers and lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.

Solution : The 3 major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South are as folloWS

(a) The Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri It is a continuous range consisting of the highest peaks.
(b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas The range lying to the South of the Himadri is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas.
(c) Shiwaliks The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks. These are the foothill ranges and represent the southernmost division of the Himalayas.

(v) Which plateaus lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan ranges?

Solution : Malwa plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan ranges.

(vi) Name of the Island group of India having coral Vindhyan

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands are composed of small coral islands.

Problem 3. Distinguish between

(i) Converging and diverging tectonic plates.

Solution : Difference between Converging plates and Diverging plates

(ii) Bhangar and Khadar.

Solution : Differences between Bhangar and Khadar

(iii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Solution : Difference between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.

Problem 4. Describe how the Himalayas were formed.

Solution :

(a) The oldest landmass of India (peninsular part) was a part of Gondwana land.
(b) Gondwana land included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single landmass.
(c) Convectional currents split the crust into a number of pieces, thereby leading to the drifting of the Indo – Australian plate after being separated from the Gondwana land towards the North.
(d) The Northward drift resulted in the collision of the plate with the much larger Eurasian plate.
(e) Due to this collision the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosyncline known as the Tethys, were folded to form the mountain systems of Western Asia and Himalaya.
(f) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast following rivers.

Problem 5. Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

Solution :
The major physiographic divisions of India are

The Himalayan mountains
The Northern plains
The Peninsular plateau
The Indian desert
The Coastal plains
The islands

Contrast between the Himalayan region and the Peninsular plateau

Problem 6. Give an account of the Northern plains of India.

Solution : (a) The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys sea and subsidence of the Northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. In course of time, this depression gradually got filled with deposition of sediments from rivers flowing from the mountains In the north and led to formation of the fertile Northern plains.
(b) It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq km. The plain IS about 2400 km long and 240-230 km broad
(c) It is a densely populated and an Intensively cultivated area.
(d) With Its adequate water supply and favourable climate, It is agriculturally a very productive part of India
(e) The Northern plains are broadly divided into 3 sections.
(f) The Western part of the Northern plans IS called the Punjab plains, formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
(g) The Ganga plain extends between the Ghaggar and the Teesta rivers, spread over the states of Haryana, Delhi, UP Bihar and West Bengal.
(h) The Brahmaputra Plain to the East of the Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plain covering the areas of Assam and Arunachal

Problem 7. Write short notes on the following

(i) The Indian Desert
(ii) The Central Highlands
(iii) The Island Groups of India

Solution : (i) The Indian Desert
The Indian desert lies towards the Western margin of the Aravalli hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
This region receives very low rainfall, below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season. Soon they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea. Luni is the only large river in this region. Barchan (Crescent shaped dunes) cover the larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo – Pakistan border.
The Indian desert is popularly known as the Thar desert.

(ii) The Central Highlands The Peninsular plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely the central highlands and the Deccan plateau.
The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering a major area of the Malwa plateau is known as the Central Highlands.
They are bound by the Vindhya Range from the south and by the Aravalli hills from the north-west.
The further westward extension gradually merges with the sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan.
The flow of the rivers draining this region, namely the Chambal, the Sind, the Betwe and Ken is from south-west to north-east.
The central highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
The eastward extensions of their plateau are locally known as ‘Bundelkhand’ and Baghelkhand.
The Chhotanagpur plateau marks the further eastward extension drained by the Damodar river.

(iii) The Island Groups of India India has two groups of islands namely the Lakshadweep group and the Andaman and Nicobar group.

(a) The Lakshadweep Islands Group lie close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
These islands are composed of small coral islands.
Earlier, they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were renamed as the Lakshadweep.
They cover a small area of 32 sq km.
Kavaratti Island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
This island group has a great diversity of flora and fauna.
The Pitti Island, which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The elongated chain of islands located in the Bay of Bengal extending from north to south are the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
They are bigger in size and more numerous and scattered than the Lakshadweep Islands.
The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories, the Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south.
It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of the submarine mountains.
These islands are of great – strategic importance for the country.
They have great diversity of flora and fauna.
These islands lie close to the equator experience equatorial climate and have thick forest cover.

Project / Activity

Locate the peaks, passes, ranges, plateaus hills and duns hidden in the puzzle.
Try to find where these features are located. You may start your search horizontally vertically or diagonally.

Solution :

  • Horizontally the features ale

  • Nathula

  • Cardamom

  • Garo

  • Kanchenjunga

  • Anamudi

  • Everest

  • Patli

  • Vertically the features are

  • Chottanagpur

  • Aravali

  • Konkan

  • Jaintia

  • Malwa

  • Nilgirl

  • Shipki La

  • Vindhya

  • Bomdila

  • Sahyadri

  • Satpura (this one is from bottom to top)

(Geography)  Chapter 3 Drainage

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?

(a) Radial
(b) Dendritic
(c) Centrifugal
(d) Trellis

Solution (b)

(ii) In which of the following states is the Wular Lake located ?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Solution (d)

(iii) The river Narmada has its source as

(a) Satpura
(b) Amarkantak
(c) Brahmagiri
(d) Slopes of the Western Ghats

Solution (b)

(iv) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

(a) Sambhar
(b) Wular
(c) Dal
(d) Gobind Sagar

Solution (a)

(v) Which one of the following is the longest river of peninsular India?

(a) Narmada
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi

Solution (c)

(vii) Which one amongst the following rivers flow through a Rift Valley?

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Tapi

Solution (d)

Problem 2. Solution the following Problem s briefly.

(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example

Solution Any elevated area such as a mountain or an upland that separate two drainage basins is called a water divide. An example are the Western Ghats.

(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?

Solution The Ganga Basin is the largest river basin in India.

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?

Solution The river Indus rises in Tibet. near lake Mansarovar. and the Ganga originates at the Gangotri Glacier. Both of them have their origin in the Himalayas.

(iv) Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form the Ganga?

Solution The two head streams of the Ganga are the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet at Devprayag in Uttarakhand to form the Ganga.

(v) Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?

Solution In TIbet. the river Indus known as Tsang Po carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as it is a cold and dry area.
In India. the river carries a large volume of water and considerable amount of silt because it passes through a region of high rainfall.

(vi) Which two peninsular rivers flow through a trough ?

Solution Narmada and Tapi are two peninsular rivers, which flow through a trough.

(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.


Lakes are of a great value to human beings.
Lakes help to regulate the flow of rivers.
Lakes help to prevent flooding during rainy season.
During the dry season, lakes help to maintain an even flow of water.
Lakes can also be used for developing hydel power.
They moderate the climate of the surroundings and maintain the aquatic ecosystem.
They enhance natural beauty and help to develop tourism and provide recreation. e.g., Dal Lake and Naini Lake at Nainital.
Lakes provide opportunities for fishery development.


They help to develop hydel power.
They provide water for irrigation, for drinking and other requirements.
They help to develop fisheries.

(Geography) Chapter 4 Climate

Problem 1. Choose the correct Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati

Solution : (b)

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as

(a) Kaal Baisakhi
(b) Loo
(c) Trade Winds
(d) None of these

Solution : (b)

(iii) Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?

(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Western disturbances
(c) Retreating monsoon
(d) Southwest monsoon

Solution : (a)

(iv) Monsoon arrives in India approximately

(a) early May
(b) early July
(c) early June
(d) early August

Solution : (c)

(v) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights
(d) Cool days and warm nights

Solution : (b)

Problem 2. Solution the following Problems briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?

Solution : There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief features.

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

Solution : The monsoon winds play an important role in the climate of India. Therefore, it is called the monsoon type of climate.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

Solution : The north-western part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. In the Thar desert, the day temperature may rise to 50 0 e and drop down to near 15°e the same night. On the other hand, there is hardly any difference in day and night temperatures in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands or in Kerala .

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?

Solution : The south west monsoon winds are responsible for the rainfall along the Malabar coast.

(v) What are jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?

Solution : Jet streams are a narrow belt of high altitude (above 12000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere.

(a) Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
(b) A number of separate jet streams have been identified.
(c) The most constant are the mid latitude and subtropical jet streams.
(d) Jet streams over the Indian peninsula during the summer affect the monsoon.
(e) The subtropical westerly jet stream blow south of the Himalayas and is responsible for the western cyclonic disturbances experienced in the north and north western parts of the country.
(f) An easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India. It affects the coastal regions of the country and is responsible for tropical cyclones during the monsoon as well as during the October to November period.

(vi) Define monsoons. What do you understand by ‘break’ in monsoon?

Solution : The monsoons are moisture laden winds from the southwest which bring heavy rainfall to southern Asia, in summer.

‘Break’ in monsoon means that the monsoon has alternate wet and dry spells. This means that the monsoon rains take place for a few days at a time. These wet spells are interspersed with dry spells related to the movement of the monsoon trough.

(vii) Why is monsoon considered a unifying bond?

Solution : The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons.

Monsoon rains are unevenly distributed and typically uncertain. The Indian landscape, plant and animal life, agriculture, the people and their festivities, all revolve around the monsoon.

All the Indian people eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon. It binds the whole country by providing water which sets all agricultural activities in motion. That is why the monsoon is considered a unifying bond.

Problem 3. Why does rainfall decrease from the east to the west in northern India?

Solution : Rainfall decreases from the east to the west in Northern India because there is a decrease in the moisture of the winds. As the moisture bearing winds of the Bay of Bengal branch of the south west monsoon move further and further inland, the moisture gradually decreases and results in low rainfall when moving westwards. Consequently, states like Gujarat and Rajasthan in western India get very little rainfall.

Problem 3. Give reasons as to why

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent.
(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone.

Solution :
(i) During winter, there is a high pressure area north of the Himalayas. Cold winds blow from this region to the low pressure areas over the oceans to the south.

(a) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north-western India.
(b) This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.

(ii) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north western India

(a) This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer. Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian ocean, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent
(b) These are known as the south-west monsoon winds
(c) These winds blow over warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India
(d) The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid September. Thus, we can say that rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.

(iii) During the winter season, -the north-west trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from land to sea and hence for most part of the country it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as here they blow from sea to land.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones because the cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman Sea generally cross the Eastern coasts of India and cause heavy and widespread rain.

(a) These cyclones are often very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are frequently struck by cyclones which cause great damage to life and property.
(b) Sometimes these cyclones arrive at the coasts of Odisha, West Bangal and Bangladesh.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone because they receive scanty rainfall. Even during the monsoon months the monsoon winds when rising over the Western Ghats give rain to that area. By the time they reach Rajasthan and Gujarat there is very less moisture left in these winds and so these areas are drought prone.

Problem 4. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Solution : There are regional variations in the climatic conditions of India which can be understood with the help of the following examples

(a) The months of December and January are the coldest in Northern India where the temperature ranges between 10°-15°.
(b) In summer, the mercury occasionally touches 50°C in some parts of the Rajasthan desert, whereas it might be around 2O°C in pahalgam In Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) On a winter night temperature at Drass in Jammu and Kashmir may be as low as minus 40″C. Tiruvananthapuram on the other hand may have a temperature of 22° C.
(d) Annual precipitation varies from over 400 em in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and western Rajasthan. In the Himalayas precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
(e) Coastal region does not experience much variation in temperature pattern due to the moderating influence of the sea.

Problems 5. Discuss the mechanism of monsoon.

Solution : The climate of India is described as the monsoon type

(a) The factors affecting the climate of an area are latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system distance from the sea
(b) Pressure and surface winds, and relief features
(c) India lies in the region of north-easterly winds. These winds originate from the subtropical high pressure belt in the northern hemisphere, get deflected to the right due to the coriolls force and move on towards the equatorial low pressure area.
(d) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia andnorth-western India. This causes complete reversal of the direction of the winds during summer. Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the south-west monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.
(e) The upper air circulation in this region is dominated by a westerly flow.
(f) The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid September
(g) The Southern Oscillation (SO) and jet streams also affects the monsoon.Withdrawal or Retreat of Monsoon The withdrawal or retreat of the monsoon begins in the states of India by early September. By mid October, it withdraws completely from the northern half of the peninsula. By December, the monsoon has withdrawn from the rest of the country.

Problem 6. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Solution : The cold weather season begins from the November in northern India and stays till February. December and January are the coldest onths in the northern part of India.

(a) The weather is normally marked by clear sky, low temperatures, low humidity and feeble variable winds
(b) Days are warm and nights are cold. Frost is common in the north and higher slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall
(c) During this season, the north-east trade winds blow from land to sea and hence for most parts of the country it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as they blow there from sea to land
(d) A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the north-west. The low pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India along with the westerly flow. They cause the much needed winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains
(e) Although, the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as ‘Mahawat’ is small, it is of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops
(f) The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season. There is hardly any noticeable change in temperature pattern during winter due to the moderating influence of the sea.

Problem 2.

(i) Name two rainiest stations.

Solution : Shillong and Mumbai.

(ii) Name two driest stations.

Solution : Leh and Jodhpur.

(iii) Name two stations with most equable climate.

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram and Mumbai.

(iv) Name two stations with most extreme climate.

Solution : Leh and Jodhpor.

(v) Name two stations most influenced by the Arabian branch of south-west monsoons.

Solution : Mumbai and Thiruvanantapuram.

(vi) Name two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons.

Solution : Shillong and Kolkata.

(vii) Name two stations influenced by both branches of the south-west monsoons.

Solution : Delhi and Nagpur.

(viii) Name two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons.

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram and Chennai

(ix) Name two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.

Solution : Delhi and Kolkata.

(x) Name two hottest stations in the months of

(a) February
(b) April
(c) May
(d) June

Solution :

(a) Thiruvanantapuram and Chennai.
(b) Nagpur and Chennai.
(c) Nagpur and Delhi I Jodhpur.
(d) Jodhpur and Delhi.

Problem 3. Now find out

(i) Why are Thiruvanantapuram and Shillong rainier in June than in July?

Solution : They are rainier in June as the monsoon’s arrival occurs in both places in June and the initial impact of the monsoon is an intense period of heavy rain.

(ii) Why is July rainier in Mumbai than in Thiruvanantapuram?

Solution : The monsoon reaches Mumbai about 10 days after Thiruvanantapuram and so the initial impact- of the monsoon continues into the next month. After the first initial downpour the monsoon falls into a steady pattern of raining for at least a couple of hours most days. So, it reduces in Thiruvanantapuram earlier than in Mumbai.

(iii) Why are south-west monsoons less rainy in Chennai?

Solution : Chennai doesn’t receive much rain during the south-west monsoon, as the south of India (the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala) gets most of its rainfall from the north-east monsoon, from October to December.

(iv) Why is Shillong rainier than Kolkata?

Solution : Shillong is in a hilly area and the hills trap the monsoon winds, so that Shillong becomes rainier than Kolkata.

(v) Why is Kolkata rainier in July than in June unlike Shillong which is rainier in June than in July?

Solution : The monsoon reaches Shillong earlier than Kolkata (refer to the ‘Advancing Monsoon’ map in your textbook) and the initial impact is heavier than the later showers. So, Shillong is rainier in June while Kolkata is rainier in July.

(vi) Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?

Solution :  Jodhpur is on the edge of the Thar Desert and by the time the monsoon winds reach it, most of their moisture is finished. Delhi is more east than Jodhpur and so it receives more rainfall.

Problem 4. Now think why

(i) Thiruvanantapuram has equable climate?

Solution :  Thiruvanantapuram has equable climate because of two reasons.

(a) It is on the sea coast. The moderating influence of the sea makes the climate equable.
(b) It is near to the equator. At the equator, all the seasons have similar temperatures and so this makes the climate equable.

(ii) Chennai has more rains only after the fury of monsoon is over in most parts of the country?

Solution : Chennai receives most of its rainfall from the north-east monsoon, which gives rains mostly from October to December, and not the south-west monsoon. That is why Chennai gets most of its rainfall later than most other parts of the country.

(iii) Jodhpur has a hot desert type of climate?

Solution : Jodhpur is in the extreme western part of India and so, when the monsoon winds reach it, they have exhausted their moisture. Further it is on the edge of the Thar Desert. That is why it has a hot desert type of climate.

(iv) Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year?

Solution : Leh is in the ‘cold desert’ called Ladakh, which is a valley in between two mountain ranges. No monsoon winds are able to reach it. That is why it has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year.

(v) While in Delhi and Jodhpur most of the rain is confined to nearly three months, in Thlruvanantapuram and Shillong it is almost nine months of the year?

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram ison the sea coast and so it receives rainfall from both the southwest and north-east monsoons, besides receiving rainfall due to local disturbances which pick up moisture from the sea. Shillong is in a hilly area and so receives rain from the monsoon as well as from local disturbances which are trapped by the hills.

(vi) In spite of these facts see carefully if there are strong evidences to conclude that the monsoons still provide a very strong framework lending overall climatic unity to the whole country.

Solution : The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons. Monsoon rains are unevenly distributed and typically uncertain. The Indian landscape, plant and animal life, agriculture, the people and their festivities, all revolve around the monsoon.

(Geography) Chapter 5 Nature Vegetation & Wildlife

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to ?

(a) Tundra
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen

Solution : (d)

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than

(a) 100 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) less than 50 cm

Solution : (a)

(iii) In which of the following states is the Simlipal bioReserve located ?

(a) Punjab
(b) Orissa
(c) Delhi
(d) west Bengal

Solution : (b)

(iv) Which one of the following bioreserves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?

(a) Manas
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nanda Devi

Solution : (a)

Problem 2. anwser the following questions briefly Define an ecosystem.

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Geography (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Geography (Hindi Medium) Senior Secondary


(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Mathematics Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Mathematics Senior Secondary


The curriculum in Mathematics has been designed to cater to the specific needs of NIOS learners. The thrust is on the applicational aspects of mathematics and relating learning to the daily life and work situation of the learners. The course is modular in nature with – eight compulsory modules forming the core curriculum and four optional modules out of which the learner is to choose one optional module. An attempt has been made to reduce rigour and abstractness.


The course aims at enabling learners to :

  •  become precise, exact and logical.
  •  acquire knowledge of mathematical terms, symbols, facts and formulae.
  •  develop an understanding of mathematical concepts.
  •  develop problem solving ability.
  •  acquire skills in applying the learning to situation including reading charts, tables, graphs etc.
  •  apply the above skills in solving problems related to Science, Commerce and daily life.
  •  develop a positive attitude towards Mathematics and its application.


The compulsory modules are :

1. Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
2. Determinants and Matrices
3. Permutations and Combinations
4. Sequences and Series
5. Trigonometry
6. Coordinate Geometry
7. Differential Calculus
8. Integral Calculus

The optional modules are :

9. Statistics and Probability
10. Vectors and Analytical Solid Geometry
11. Linear Programming



Core Modules


Time (Hrs)


Introduction to Financial Accounting

6 17


Accounting terms, Accounting
equation and Journal

6 16


Voucher Approach in Accounting

12 40


Bank Reconciliation Statement

6 15


Financial Statements

15 30


Partnership Accounts

20 45


Accounting for Share Capital

15 52



80 195


Choose any one out of two
Modules 8 to 9




Analysis of Financial Statements




Final Accounts of Non-Trading Organisation


(News) CBSE has decided to drop the Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) in classes IX and XI

CBSE has decided to drop the Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) in classes IX and XI

CBSEIn a move that will bring great relief to class IX CBSE students, the board has decided to drop the Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) in classes IX and XI.

Instead, the students will appear for an additional Formative Assessment (FA).

For the past three years, CBSE has been conducting the PSA for classes IX and XI, with the board preparing the question paper along the lines of a competitive examination.

The examination is divided into four sections: reasoning, general knowledge, mathematics and science. The marks obtained in the different sections are then added to the marks of science, English, mathematics and social studies.

Students, teachers and principals in the city say that the cancellation of the PSA is a good move, since it will make a big difference in the marks of the students.

“Preparing for the PSA is difficult, especially since I am not attending any coaching for competitive examinations. I am glad that there will be an extra FA instead of the PSA,” S. Kamini, a student of Class IX said.

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Mathematics (Hindi - Medium) Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Mathematics (Hindi - Medium) Senior Secondary



(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Home Science Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Home Science Senior Secondary

Home Science


Home Science is a Subject, which promotes understanding of each of the home with necessary scientific basis and provides essential knowledge to face the changing ways of life. An attempt has been made to develop a course by adoping an integrated approach towards the application of science, technology and humanities in areas like resource management, mind the fact that the Senior Secondary stage could be the terminal point of study for most learners this course not only better equips them to deal with problems on the home front but also offers information on advanced vocational streams for those who decide to pursue a career.


The comprehensive objectives of teaching Home Science at this level are to _

  •  develop a scientific approach through application of science and technology in everyday living.

  •  promote awareness of ill-effects of environmental degradation on human lives;

  •  explain principles and techniques to handle problems in middle childhood and adolescence;

  •  impart advanced knowledge of textiles;

  •  explain the need and basis of therapeutic nutrition.


Compulsory Modules

Minimum Study Hours


1 Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations

Determinants & Matrices

Permutations & Combinations

Sequences & Series


Coordinate Geometry

Differential Calculus

Integral Calculus




















Resource Management


Development in Middle Childhood


Fabric Science 16
Food and Nutrition 16
Optional Module 16






The course has been divided into two parts: the CORE modules and some OPTIONAL modules. The core modules comprise four in member and impart knowledge and information, which is essential for all learners. These are compulsory for all students of the course. There are three optional modules out of which the students have to choose and study any one module.



This modules is designed to familiarize the reader with the concept of conservation of energy, to create a sense of maintaining ethics at work, to develop skills in money management, and to show how the available space and time can be effectively used to maximize output.


  • need
  • scope
  • employment opportunities


  •  Definition
  •  Problems faced
  •  Consumer Protection Act
  •  Consumer redressal


  •  meaning and importance
  •  competence and work ethics


  •  definition
  •  recording income and expenditure
  • supplementing income.


  •  importance and methods of saving
  •  agencies of investment
  •  financing agencies


  • meaning and need
  •  principles of work simplification
  •  time and energy management


  •  meaning and need
  •  space of work simplification
  •  space organization and aesthetics


  •  meaning and need
  •  areas where energy can be conserved
  •  at home and work place
  •  non conventional sources of energy


  •  environment degradation
  •  effects on man
  •  creating an eco-friendly environment

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Business Studies Senior Secondary

(Download) NIOS Syllabus Of Business Studies Senior Secondary

(Business Studies)


The trend today in business is towards globalization. The entire world has become one big market. Development in transportation and communication has played a significant role in unifying varrious countries of the world. Business activities play a vital role in the development of a country. Its increasing contribution to production of goods and services measures the level of growth in an economy. Today goods are produced and sold in anticipation of demand. Business as an activity has become more complex and sensitive. It is also exposed to greater risks and uncertainties. Hence the activity requires a systematic learning and professional handling.

The current syllabus is designed to cater to the needs of National Open School students in various areas of business studies. It aims at creating an interest and understanding in the area of trade, and its auxiliaries, management, finance, and marketing and would enable the students to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills. The scope of business as a career is also highlighted.

The entire course content is divided into core and optional modules. Learning experiences considered essential for business studies are described in core modules, whereas practice oriented areas have been covered in optional modules.

The optional modules of the syllabus are based on vocational areas e.g. office procedures and practices, banking, setting up factories, and agency services. The modules would help the learners to enter the world of employment/self-employment by creating an interest in them for vocational activities.





1. Introduction to Business 16 40
2. Business as a Career 8 10
3. Trade and Service Activities 16 40
4. Management of Business 16 40
5. Financing of Business 12 30
6. Marketing 12 30




7. Office procedures and Practices    
8. Practical Banking 20 50
9. Introduction to Factory Set-up    
10. Agency Services    

Total 100 240





1. The main objectives is to prepare the learners foractivities related to trade and commerce.
2. To enable the learners to acquire knowledge, understanding and skill in business and management.
3. To create an interest in trade and auxiliaries and various kinds of services.
4. To educate the learner about the role of business in the economy and its social obligation to the community.


1. To acquaint the learner with the nature and scope of business and form of business organisation and its suitability.
2. To make them aware about the concept of tradeinternal and external and activities auxiliary to trade.
3. To develop in them awareness about managerial skills like planning organising, staffing, directing and controlling.
4. To make them understand the concept of business finance sources (long-term, short-term), financial institutions and their services.
5. To develop in them the understanding of marketing, channels of distribution, sales promotion, advertising and personal selling.
6. To make them aware about avenues of employment, career development and selfemployment, office procedure and practices, functions of commercial funds, factory set-up and agency services.


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